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alexandr402 [8]
3 years ago
11

8. When Jill Thompson received a large settlement from an automobile accident,

Business
1 answer:
Dennis_Churaev [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The amount of fees that Jill will pay this year=$248.20

Explanation:

Expense ratio is a measure of how much fees that fund management firms charge their clients for their investments services. These fees cover administrative and operational costs. In our case, the expense ratio will be expressed as the fees that Jill will pay as a portion of the total amount she invested. The expense ratio can be expressed as shown;

ER=C/A

where;

ER=expense ratio

C=total funds cost

A=total funds assets

In our case;

ER=0.17%=0.17/100=0.0017

C=unknown to be determined

A=$146,000

replacing;

C=ER×A

C=0.0017×146,000=$248.20

The amount of fees that Jill will pay this year=$248.20

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The following data pertains to activity and maintenance costs for two recent years: Year 2 Year 1Activity Levels in units 12,000
iragen [17]

Answer:

Total cost= 0.75x + 6,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Year 2:

Units= 12,000

Cost= $15,000

Year 1:

Units= 8,000

Cost= $12,000

To determine the cost formula, first, we need to calculate the unitary variable cost and fixed cost.

Variable cost per unit= (Highest activity cost - Lowest activity cost)/ (Highest activity units - Lowest activity units)

Variable cost per unit= (15,000 - 12,000) / (12,000 - 8,000)= $0.75 per unit

Fixed costs= Highest activity cost - (Variable cost per unit * HAU)

Fixed costs= 15,000 - (0.75*12,000)= $6,000

Fixed costs= LAC - (Variable cost per unit* LAU)

Fixed costs= 12,000 - (0.75*8,000)= $6,000

Now, the cost formula is:

Total cost= unitary variable cost + fixed cost

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7 0
3 years ago
The Carbondale Hospital is considering the purchase of a new ambulance. The decision will rest partly on the anticipated mileage
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

a. Year 6 Forecast = 3,775

b. Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. Year 6 Forecast = 3,780

Explanation:

Given

The miles driven during the past 5 years are as​ follows

Year 1 -- 3,100

Year 2 --- 4,050

Year 3 --- 3,450

Year 4 ---- 3,750

Year 5 --- 3,800

a. The forecast for year 6 is calculated as follows;

Using a 2 year moving average

Forecast = ½(Year 4 + Year 5)

Forecast = ½(3750 + 3800)

Forecast = ½ * 7550

Forecast = 3,775

b. Calculating the Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD), if two years moving average is used.

------------------------------2 year difference ----- Difference

Year 1 -- 3,100 ------------------------------------------

Year 2 --- 4,050 -----------------------------------------

Year 3 --- 3,450 ---- 3,575 -------- 125

Year 4 ---- 3,750 ---- 3,750 ------ 0

Year 5 --- 3,800 ----- 3,600 ------ 200

The 2-year difference column is calculated using.

Summation of previous 2 years forecast * ½

Year 1 and 2 are empty because they don't have previous 2 years.

For year 3;

2 year difference = ½ (year 1 + year 2)

= ½(3,100 + 4,050)

= ½ (7,150)

= 3,575

For year 4

2 year difference = ½ (year 2 + year 3)

= ½(4,050 + 3,750)

= ½ (7,500)

= 3,750

For year 5:

2 year difference = ½ (year 3 + year 4)

= ½(3,750 + 3,450)

= ½ (7,200)

= 3,600

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (Summation of Difference)/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (125 + 0 + 200)

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 325/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. for year 6 using a weighted​ 2-year moving average with weights of 0.40 and 0.60

For year 5:

Forecast = 0.4 * year 4 + 0.6 * year 5

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5 0
3 years ago
When small changes in price lead to infinite changes in quantity demanded, demand is perfectly
aleksley [76]

Answer:

correct answer is Option D

Explanation:

Option D - elastic, and the demand curve will be horizontal.

The quantity would be changed infinitely with a samll change in the the price. It means that demand is perfectly elastic and the curve is horizontal as the small change up decreases the quantity to zero and small change down increases the quantity infinity. Thus, option D is the correct ams of this questionwer

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3 years ago
Using the liquidity-preference model, the Federal Reserve can react to the threat of exceedingly high inflation via monetary pol
stich3 [128]

Answer:

left as well as the contractionary monetary policy, then bring about the

increase of interest rate as well as reducing equilibrium quantity of money.

Explanation:

Liquidity Preference model can be regarded as a model gives suggestions about investor and interest rate, the model entails that high interest rate as well as premium on securities associated with long-term maturities with higher risk should be demanded by investors, reason behind this suggestions is that most investors will always go for cash as well as available highly liquid holdings, all things been equal. It should be noted that Using the liquidity-preference model, the Federal Reserve can react to the threat of exceedingly high inflation via monetary policy by shifting the supply of money to the left as well as the contractionary monetary policy, then bring about the increase of interest rate as well as reducing equilibrium quantity of money.

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