Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
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Answer:
1. no
2. yes
3. yes
4. yes
5. no
Step-by-step explanation:
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Answer:
or 
Step-by-step explanation:
The given absolute value inequality is 
Divide both sides of the inequality by -2 and reverse the inequality sign:
By the definition of the absolute value function;
Either or 
Divide through the rightmost inequality by -1 and reverse the sign.
This implies that:
or
