Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer:
I. Present values increase as the discount rate increases.
and
III. Present values are smaller than future values when both r and t are positive.
Answer:
$80,500
Explanation:
Data provided as per the question
Capital asset = $23,000
Number of year = 5
Income tax rate = 30%
The computation of cash inflow from operations is as shown below:-
Before tax = capital asset × number of year
= $23,000 × 5
= $115,000
Cash inflow from operations = Before tax × (1 - Income tax rate)
= $115,000 × (1 - 0.3)
= $115,000 × 0.7
= $80,500
Answer:
Explanation:
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