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Lina20 [59]
3 years ago
9

Which statement is generally true of an investment that is highly volatile but has superior, long-term real rates of return?

Business
1 answer:
Elenna [48]3 years ago
6 0
Which statement is generally true of an investment that is highly volatile but has superior, long-term real rates of return?
<span>
It has low liquidity because selling would often require selling at a loss.

High volatile investments are investments that always fluctuates in the market. It can generate you very high income or very low income. It has low liquidity because when you sell it right away, you tend to sell at a loss.</span>
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Sam visits Mexico for a business meeting. At the meeting, Sam addresses the vice president of the firm by his first name rather
Nesterboy [21]

Answer:

A. power distance

Explanation:

In the context of Hofstede's cultural dimensions, this difference in cultures is part of the power distance dimension, which corresponds to the hierarchical position of the members of an organization and the appropriate relationship form for each hierarchy in an organization that occurs in certain cultures, reinforced by an inequality that already occurs in society.

To avoid offensive behavior in multinational businesses, it is necessary to have multicultural skills that include ethics, respect and knowledge of a new culture and its rules.

8 0
3 years ago
_____ 7. While North Americans want to decide the main points at a business meeting and leave the details for later, people in t
Afina-wow [57]

Answer:

"Mexico" is the appropriate answer.

Explanation:

  • Throughout the case of Mexican individuals, what and when to talk in the discussions or conferences is punctual.
  • Furthermore, you wouldn't overlook the little characteristics because doing so would generate misunderstanding or some complications. You mention as well as continue to talk all about that at the conference.
3 0
3 years ago
A successful biologist’s main interest area would be _____.
SpyIntel [72]

it would be scientific

8 0
3 years ago
Van Den Borsh Corp. has annual sales of $68,735,000, an average inventory level of $15,012,000, and average accounts receivable
pantera1 [17]

Answer:

The Cash Conversion Cycle is the number of days it takes management of a company to convert its inventory into cash on hand after its business transactions.  It is a useful metric for measuring the effectiveness of management, especially for companies with inventory of goods for sale.

CCC combines the days of inventory outstanding, accounts receivable outstanding, less accounts payable outstanding to obtain a value based on days.

Therefore, the net change in the Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC) in this scenario is the difference between the previous CCC and the new one based on the new proposals.

a) Days Inventory Outstanding or DIO = Average Inventory divided by Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)per day.  Cost of Goods Sold is 85% of sales.

DIO = $15,012,000 / $58,424,750 x 365 days = 94 days

b) Days Sales Outstand or DSO  = Average Accounts Receivable divided by Revenue per day.

DSO = $10,008,000 /$68,735,000 x 365 days = 53 days

c) Days Payable Outstanding or DPO = Average Accounts Payable divided by COGS

DPO = 30 days, as given in the question

d) CCC = DIO + DSO - DPO

CCC = 94 + 53 - 30 = 117 days

Based on the new proposals, the CCC is calculated as follows:

a) DIO = $15,012,000 - $1,946,000 / $58,424,750 x 365 days = 82 days

b) DSO = $10,008,000 - $1,946,000 /$68,735,000 x 365 days = 43 days

c) DPO = 40 days as given.

New CCC = 82+43-40 = 85 days.

Therefore, the net change in the cash conversion cycle is 117 - 85 days, i.e. = 32 days.

Explanation:

The CCC has decreased by 32 days in the new scenario.  This is an improvement worth pursuing by management.

CCC as a measure of management effectiveness is best obtained for many years in order to compare internally.

Another way it serves as a good measure is to compare the company's CCC with its competitors'.

8 0
3 years ago
g Your financial advisor offers you two different investment options. Plan A offers a $17,000 annual payment, in perpetuity. Pla
motikmotik

Answer:

4.76%

Explanation:

The requirement in this question is determining the discount rate which gives the same present value in both cases since discount rates discount future cash flows to present value terms.

PV of a pertuity=annual cash flow/discount rate

PV of a pertuity=$17,000/r

PV of ordinary annuity=annual cash flow*(1-(1+r)^-n/r

PV of ordinary annuity=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

$17,000/r=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

multiply boths side by r

17000=30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18

divide both sides by 30000

17000/30000=1-(1+r)^-18

0.566666667=1-(1+r)^-18

by rearraging the equation we have the below

(1+r)^-18=1-0.566666667

(1+r)^-18=0.433333333

divide indices on both sides by -18

1+r=(0.433333333)^(1/-18)

1+r=1.047554315

r=1.047554315-1

r=4.76%

5 0
3 years ago
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