Answer:
The correct answer to the following question will be Option C.
Explanation:
- A Cost variance seems to be the gap and difference between the expected expenditures incurred as well as the projected regular expenditures at just the start of such a time frame.
- Such variances have been used by administrators to assess and monitor the progress including its supply chains, expenditures as well as other activities.
⇒ Cost variance = Actual cost - Standard cost
Some other available options have no connection with the given case. So choice C seems to be the perfect solution to that.
Answer:
profit sharing
Explanation:
profit-sharing plan can be regarded as retirement plan which is designed to let an employee to have a share in the profits of a firm. In this particular plan some percentage of the profit made by the company,firm can be received by the employee using the quarterly or annual earnings of the employee as the basis.
Answer:
Increase quantity to where AC = MC = D=AR=MR
Explanation:
A perfectly competitive market is where there are many firms in the industry producing homogeneous products. There is ease of entry and exit into and out of the market. They are price takers and earn normal profits in the long-run. In order to maximize profits, a firm in a perfectly competitive industry should produce an the quantity where its average cost is equal to marginal cost when AR = MR = D. In other words, when the AC and MC curves intersect with AR = MR = D curve.
<em><u>Please refer diagram</u></em>
The firm is currently producing at a point where AC > MC at quantity 1000. In order to reach AC = MC, the firm has to increase its quantity to Qe. As it increases quantity, although marginal cost increases, average cost falls because now fixed costs are spread over a larger quantity of output.
At Qe, the three curves intersect and is the point where this firm can maximize its revenue (Price = Pe). At a price higher than this, it would lose customers since there are many others producing the same product and customers can easily shift to another.
Answer:
Fabiola pays 27.0963 dollars for 8.79877 gallons of fuel.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that,
Fabiola pays 357 pesos for 40 liters of fuel.
It is required to convert the amount in dollars.
Since, we know that,
1 peso = 0.0759 dollars
So, 357 pesos = 0.0759 × 357 = 27.0963 dollars
Moreover,
1 liter = 0.219969 gallons
So, 40 liters = 0.219969 × 40 = 8.79877 gallons
Thus, we get that,
Fabiola pays 27.0963 dollars for 8.79877 gallons of fuel.
Answer:
a. Subassemblies
Explanation:
Subassemblies are one of the inputs to manufacturing and service-delivery processes. This is because these are small units that need to be assembled separately but then later become part of the final larger manufactured product. Therefore since they are part of the final manufactured product they are an input in the manufacturing process of that larger product needed in order for it to be finished.