The answer is a i think but if u get it wrong im sorry
If f(x) has an inverse on [a, b], then integrating by parts (take u = f(x) and dv = dx), we can show
Let 
. Compute the inverse:
![f\left(f^{-1}(x)\right) = \sqrt{1 + f^{-1}(x)^3} = x \implies f^{-1}(x) = \sqrt[3]{x^2-1}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=f%5Cleft%28f%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%5Cright%29%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%7B1%20%2B%20f%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%5E3%7D%20%3D%20x%20%5Cimplies%20f%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7Bx%5E2-1%7D)
and we immediately notice that ![f^{-1}(x+1)=\sqrt[3]{x^2+2x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=f%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%2B1%29%3D%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7Bx%5E2%2B2x%7D)
.
So, we can write the given integral as
Splitting up terms and replacing 
in the first integral, we get
Answer:17.5
Step-by-step explanation:you take 140 divide it by 8
Answer:
15 inches
Step-by-step explanation:
42 = 2L + 2(6)
first, we need to isolate L.
solve 2(6) to make this easier
42 = 2L + 12
42 - 12 = 2L + 12 - 12 ( this cancels out 12. )
30 = 2L
30 ÷ 2 = 2L ÷ 2 ( this cancels out 2. )
15 = L
100+25x=250
Subtract 100 from both sides
25x=150
X=6
6 people
