you want me to do step by step or just tell you the answer?
Step-by-step explanation:
Probably true
you can test it too
Answer:
a = 4
Step-by-step explanation:
ur welcome
Answer:
$6,540
Step-by-step explanation:
In 1 year, the trainer contributes 6% of 25,000;
0.06*25000= $1500
The employer matches 9% of his contributions; 9% of 1,500
0.09*1500= $135
Therefore, in 1 year, the 401(k) account will have 1500+135=$1635
This means that in order to find how much will have ben contributed after 4 years , you multiply $1635 by 4;
1635*4= $6,540
Answer:P(BBR) = 1/2 × 25/51 × 26/50 = 13/102 if cards are not replaced.
P(RBB) = 1/2 × 26/51 × 25/50 (simplified 1/2) = 13/102
P(BRB) = 1/2 × 26/51 ×25/50 (simplified 1/2) = 13/102
Step-by-step explanation: P(B) at first step is 26 cards out of a possible 52 therefore 26/52 (or simplified 1/2). We then have 25 black cards left out of a possible 51 therefore 25/51. The final card then has to be red to meet the criteria, we have 26 red cards still out of a possible 50 therefore 26/50.
This would be an example of binomial probability as at each step there are only 2 options R or B.
