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chubhunter [2.5K]
3 years ago
15

LO 8.5When might an unfavorable variance be a good outcome?

Business
1 answer:
ivolga24 [154]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: An unfavorable variance can be used to detect a drop in estimated income early, and then solutions to the challenge can be identified.

Explanation:

An unfavorable variance is the difference between a company's projected expectation and the actual outcome of a financial activity of the company, where the actual outcome is less favorable than the projected expectation.

The information from an unfavorable variance can help alert a company to a negative outcome early, and the company's leadership can then find ways of solving the cause of the negative outcome.

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From the following list of selected items taken from the records of Rosewood Appliance Service as of a specific date, identify t
elena55 [62]

Answer:

Explanation:

We summarize the assets and liabilities in the classified balance sheet into various types Like assets are divided into fixed assets, current assets, and intangible assets.

Liabilities are likewise divided into current liabilities, long-term liabilities The accounting equation is used in any balance sheet which means

Total assets = Total liabilities + shareholder equity

So, the accounts which are appeared on the balance sheet are shown below:

1. Accounts Payable = Current liabilities

2. Accounts Receivable = Current assets

3. Andrew King, Capital = Stockholder equity

4. Cash = Current assets

5. Land = Fixed assets

6. Supplies = Current assets

7. Wages Payable  = Current liabilities

All other are related to the income statement. Therefore, ignored it

4 0
3 years ago
Under U.S. GAAP, if the carrying value of a fixed asset was $50,000, the undiscounted expected future cash flows was $55,000, th
ira [324]

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.

Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000

Market Value = $53,000

Discounted Value = $51,000

There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Monte Vista uses the perpetual inventory system. At the beginning of the quarter, Monte Vista has $44,000 in inventory. During t
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

The answer is $18,810

Explanation:

Cost of goods sold equal:

Beginning or opening inventory plus purchases minus ending or closing inventory.

Monte Vista returned some inventories and also took advantage of discount. So this will reduce the cost of total purchases for the quarter.

Total purchase = new purchases minus purchase returns minus any discount enjoyed.

So total purchase is now:

$10,000 - $1,350 - $340

=$8,310

Therefore cost of goods sold is:

$44,000 + $8,310 - $33,500

=$18,810

4 0
3 years ago
The price elasticity of demand measures the: A. responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in quantity supplied. B. respons
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

Option "B" is the correct answer to the following statement.

Explanation:

The price elasticity of demand determines the flexibility of the volume needed to adjust the price.

The demand of an individual or market becomes inelastic if it will not adjust much to increasing prices, and it is elastic for an individual or market if the demand of a particular commodity will shift a lot as prices shift.

6 0
3 years ago
The Rivoli Company has no debt outstanding, and its financial position is given by the following data:
anzhelika [568]

Answer:

Intrinsic value is $45

Explanation:

The starting point to determining Rivoli Company intrinsic value is to compute the earning after tax as shown below:

Earnings after tax=earning before tax*(1-tax rate)

earnings before tax is $600,000

tax rate

earnings after tax=$600,000*(1-0.25)

                               =$600,000*0.75

                               =$450,000

Then we need to compute earnings per share;

Earnings per shares=earnings after tax/weighted average number of shares

                                 =$450,000/100,000

                                =$4.5

Intrinsic value=earnings per share/cost of equity

  cost of equity is 10%

intrinsic value=$4.5/10%

                      =$45

7 0
3 years ago
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