When banks hold excess reserves, the size of the money multiplier

A company provided the following direct materials cost information. Compute the total direct materials cost variance. Standard c

lord [1]

Answer:

C. $78,250 Unfavorable.

Explanation:

We know,

Material cost variance = (Standard quantity × Standard price) - (Actual Quantity × Actual price)

Given,

Standard quantity = 405,000 units

Standard price = $2.00 unit

Actual Quantity = 403,750 units

Actual price = $2.20 unit

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

Material cost variance = (Standard quantity × Standard price) - (Actual Quantity × Actual price)

Material cost variance = (405,000 × $2.00) - (403,750 × $2.20)

Material cost variance = $810,000 - $888,250

Material cost variance = -78,250

Material cost variance = 78,250 (Unfavorable)

Therefore, C is the answer.

4 0

3 years ago

As a result of the tax, the price received by producers , and . as a result of the tax, the price paid by consumers , and total

exis [7]

This is false because consumer surplus declines because of the increase in price and reduction in quantity.

7 0

3 years ago

Why is that market economies can often allocate resources in a more efficient and robust way than centrally planned economies?

sammy [17]

Answer:

Because market economies want to make money

5 0

3 years ago

As winner of a breakfast cereal competition, you can choose one of the following prizes: a. $180,000 at the end of five years. b

Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

i. Discounted cashflow equations.

a. $180,000 at the end of five years.

This is a lump sum present value/ discounted cashflow which can be calculated as;

Formula = 180,000 / ( 1 + r)^n

= 180,000/ ( 1 + 12%)^5

= $102,136.83

b. $11,400 a year forever

This is a perpetuity. The present value/ discounted cashflow of a perpetuity is calculated as;

Formula = Amount/rate

= 11,400/12%

= $95,000

c. $19,000 for each of 10 years.

This is an annuity. The formula for calculating the Present value/ discounted cashflow of an annuity is;

$Formula = Annuity * [\frac{( 1 - (1 + i)^{-n} )}{i} ]$ where i is interest rate and n is number of periods

$= 19,000 * [\frac{( 1 - (1 + 0.12)^{-10} )}{0.12} ]$

= $107,354.24

d. $6,500 next year and increasing thereafter by 5% a year forever.

This is a growing perpetuity. The present value/ discounted cashflow formula is;

= Amount / ( discount rate - growth rate)

= 6,500 / ( 12% - 5%)

= $92,857.14

ii. Choose $19,000 for each of 10 years as it has the highest present value.

7 0

3 years ago

Which of the following best explains why commodity futures contracts are transferable

ioda

The reason why commodity futures contracts are transferable is: They can be bought and sold but the obligation in the contract remains valid.

Commodity futures contract is an agreement to buy or sell a specific asset at a specific price somewhere in the future.
This contract does not specify the name of the person who should buys the asset, so it could be transferable as long as the exchange is still fuiflled.

4 0

3 years ago