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Helen [10]
4 years ago
7

You are shadowing an endocrinologist during her rounds in the hospital. You enter the room of a woman who was admitted from the

emergency department with a wide array of symptoms. Blood tests reveal hyperglycemia. The results of a glucose tolerance test are normal. Other blood tests show that he has normal levels of epinephrine and thyroid hormone, but levels of cortisol are abnormally high and ACTH is abnormally low. He has (truthfully) says that he has not been taking any drugs or medications. Wanting to impress the doctor, you carefully consider these facts and suggest that ...
A.the patient has diabetes.
B.the patient has Grave’s disease.
C.the patient is suffering side effects from long-term glucocorticoid therapy.
D.the patient has a pheochromocytoma (an over-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla).
E.you have no idea! None of the above is likely to be the correct diagnosis.
Biology
1 answer:
Zepler [3.9K]4 years ago
5 0

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

The symptoms of the patient cannot conclude to any of the disease. The  symptoms of the disease is not clear as all of the symptoms does not point towards one disease.

The glucose tolerance test of the women is normal still the blood tests reveals that she is hyperglycemia.

Moreover the levels of cortisol are abnormally high and ACTH is low with epinephrine and thyroid being normal.

There is no clinical symptom based on which the disease of the person can be recognized and diagnosed.

So, the correct answer is option E.

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The pedigree below tracks the presence of dimples through a family's generation. Having dimples is an autosomal dominant trait.
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A pedigree is a representation of a family history tracking a trait. The graph shows the inheritance pattern of the trait and its expression through several generations.

<h3>What is an autosomal dominant trait?</h3>

The autosomal dominant trait is the characteristic that is coded by a gene located in an autosomal chromosome (this is, not a sexual chromosome).

This trait is dominant because it is coded by the dominant allele, meaning that the recessive allele codes for the absence of dimples. The presence of only one dominant allele in the genotype is enough for the idividual to express dimples.

<u>               Genotype                                  Phenotype     </u>

DD, Homozygous dominant                        Dimples

Dd, Heterozygous                                        Dimples

dd, Homozygous recessive                       No Dimples

<h3>What is a pedigree?</h3>

The pedigree is the representation of a family history conserning a certain trait. In this case, dimples.

The pedigree shows the expression -and inheritance pattern- of the trait through several generations.

To correctly interpret a pedigree, we need to know that

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→ Individuals are represented with geometrical figures.

→ Males are squares

→ Females are circles

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→ Healthy/normal/not affected  individuals are represented with empty figures

→ Affected/mutated individuals are represented with solid black figures

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→ Each file is represented with a roman number, indicating the Generation.

Here we will assume that

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According to the provided pedigree,

I-1 ⇒ man DD or Dd

I-2 ⇒ woman dd

II-1 ⇒ man Dd or DD

II-2 ⇒ woman dd

II - 5 ⇒ woman dd

III - 1 ⇒ man Dd

III- 2 ⇒ woman dd

III - 6 ⇒ woman dd

Since this pedigree does not specify the relationship between individuals, I can not answer the question based on it. So, I will attach another tree to specify genotypes.

I advise you study this new example, and then follow the same reasoning to choose the correct individual according to you pedigree.

Yo can learn more about pedigrees at

brainly.com/question/19516649

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