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anyanavicka [17]
3 years ago
10

A company incurred $1,000 in costs to produce 500 units which sell for $1,500. Upon inspection, it was determined the units were

defective and reworking the units would cost an additional $1.50 per unit. The defective units can be sold as is for $1.00 each. How should the company handle the defective units?
Business
2 answers:
sveticcg [70]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Rework the units which will generate incremental income of $750.

Explanation:

tester [92]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

rework the units by spending $750 extra in order to get $1,500 in revenue

Explanation:

The company incurred in the following sunk costs:

  • production costs = $2 per unit

Since the 500 units were all defective the company can:

sell the defective units at $1 each = $1 x 500 = $500 revenue

reworking the units for $1.50 each and selling them for $3 ⇒ contribution margin = $3 - $1.50 = $1.50 per unit, which results in a $750 gross profit

The company must consider the $1,000 spent first as sunk costs, since whatever action they decide, they will not recover them. Therefore the company must only analyze the alternatives starting from scratch.  

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Todd Enterprises is preparing a cash budget for the second quarter of the coming year. The following data have been forecasted:
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

The answer is attached for ready reference

Explanation:

Please note no effect for depreciation is taken as it is non cash item.

The may ending balance is having a surplus of $103,300              

Download xlsx
8 0
4 years ago
Kirby just inherited $250,000. He would like to hire a financial advisor to provide financial advice and to manage the inheritan
Blababa [14]

Answer:

The answer is A.

Explanation:

According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.

If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.

I hope this answer helps.

5 0
3 years ago
In 2016, Chartres Inc., issued for $105 per share, 60,000 shares of $100 par value convertible preferred stock. One share of pre
faltersainse [42]

Answer:

Total amount should be credited to additional paid-in capital from common stocks as a result of the conversion of the preferred stock into common stock: $1,800,000 .

Explanation:

Please find the detailed calculations and explanations as below:

Total Cash amount received from preferred share issuance: 105 x 60,000 = $6,300,000;

The $6,300,000 will be credited into two owner's equity account:

- Common equity = Par value of common stock at the issuance of preferred stock date x Number of preferred stocks issued x Number of common stocks that one preferred stock has the right to converted into = 25 x 60,000 x 3 = $4,500,000.

- Paid-up capital account = Amount of cash receipt ( recorded as Debit) - Amount of common equity ( recorded as Credit) = 6,300,000 - 4,500,000 = $1,800,000 .

6 0
4 years ago
If a U.S. citizen could buy £25,000 for $100,000, the rate of exchange for the pound would be
Natalka [10]

Answer:

<u>The rate of exchange for the £ is US$ 4</u>

Explanation:

1. Let's check the information provided to answer the question correctly:

Amount the U.S. citizen want to buy in £ = 25,000

Amount the U.S. citizen will pay in US$ = 100,000

2. Let's calculate the rate of exchange for the British pound £, this way:

Rate of exchange = Amount in US$/Amount in £

Rate of exchange = 100,000/25,000

<u>Rate of exchange = 4 US$ per £</u>

We can also express the rate for the US$, this way:

Rate of exchange = Amount in £/Amount in US$

Rate of exchange =25,000/100,000

Rate of exchange =  £ 0.25 per US$

5 0
3 years ago
Production used 2.5 labor hours per finished unit, and the company actually paid $21 per hour, totaling $52.50 per unit of finis
jeka94

Answer:

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual hours

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The production used 2.5 labor hours per finished unit, and the company paid $21 per hour, totaling $52.50 per unit of finished product.

<u>We weren't provided with enough information to solve the problem. We need estimated production hours and rates. But, I can leave the formula to solve it.</u>

To calculate direct labor rate variance, we need to use the following formula:

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Hours

3 0
3 years ago
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