Answer:
$44,000
Explanation:
Calculation to determine how much of the $50,000 bill will the insurer pay
Total bill for medical services $50,000
Less medical expense policy calendar-year deductible ($1,000)
Less annual out-of-pocket limit $5,000
Bill payment $44,000
($50,000-$1,000-$5,000)
Therefore how much of the $50,000 bill will the insurer pay is $44,000
Answer:
Risk Premium is 10%
Explanation:
Government treasuries represent risk free rate of return.
[tex]Risk Premium=R_{m}-R_{f}/tex] ,
where, [tex]R_{f} = Risk\ Free\ Rate\ Of\ Return/[tex]
[tex]R_{m} = Market\ Rate\ Of\ Return/[tex]
Risk Premium = 15 - 5 = 10%
Risk Premium is defined as return earned on market portfolio in excess of rate of return earned on risk free assets such as government treasury bonds.
So, Risk Premium refers to the compensation an investor expects to earn for assuming higher risk by investing in market portfolio instead of investing his money in risk free class of assets.
The statement, Japan generally runs a significant trade surplus because of the structural barriers against imports into Japan, is true.
As Japan's savings rate is high relative to Japan's domestic investment, Japan generally runs a trade surplus. Thus, the result is high net capital outflow which is matched by high net exports, resulting in a trade surplus.
Japan's overall trade surplus is the result of its exports in the scientific and optical equipment, rubric machinery, semiconductors, electronic parts, and telecommunications equipment. Now the current account surplus has been shrinking for four fiscal years in a row.
Hence, in 2019, Japan reported the biggest trade surpluses with different countries.
To learn more about trade surplus here:
brainly.com/question/1930187
#SPJ4
Answer:
b. The balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be $22,000 after adjustment.
Explanation:
If credit losses are estimated at 1% of credit sales than balance of allowance for doubtful account after adjustment will be = $6,000 + $1,600,000 * 1%
= $6,000 + $16,000
= $22,000
Answer:
So a favorable material price variance might be more than offset by an adverse usage variance
Explanation:
<em>Material price variance</em>
<em>A material price variance occurs where materials are purchased at a price either lower or higher than the standard price. </em>A favourable variance is recorded where the actual total cost of materials of a given quantity is lower that the standard cost. While an adverse variance implies the opposite
<em>Material usage variance</em>
<em>A material usage variance occurs when the standard quantity required to active a particular level of production is higher or lower than than the actual actual quantity used.</em> A favorable variance would mean than less quantity of materials were used than the standard to achieve a given output level. And an adverse variance would mean the opposite
<em>Relationship between Usage variance and Price variance</em>
Where savings are made from purchase of cheap and inferior quality materials these might lead to an adverse usage variance by a greater value .This is so because workers might need to use a larger quantity ( more than the standard required) of a low-quality materials to achieve production.
So a favourable material price variance might be more than offset by an adverse usage variance
