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lora16 [44]
4 years ago
10

Lena has just become eligible to participate in her​ company's retirement plan. Her company does not match​ contributions, but t

he plan does average an annual return of 12%. Lena is 40 and plans to work to age 65. If she contributes ​$200 per​ MONTH compounded ANNUALLY, how much will she have in her plan at​ retirement?
Business
1 answer:
Darya [45]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$375,769.33

Explanation:

Premium amount(PMT) = $200

rate of return(r) = 12% annual = 12/12 = 1% monthly = 0.01

Number of payment(n) = (65-40) = 25 Annual = 25 x 12 = 300 monthly

Future value = ?

Computation:

Future\ Value = PMT [\frac{(1+i)^{n}-1}{i}] \\ = 200 [\frac{(1+0.01)^{300}-1}{0.01}]\\= 200 [\frac{(1+.01)^{300}-1}{0.01}]\\\\= 200 [\frac{19.7884663-1}{0.01}]\\\\= 200 [\frac{18.7884663}{0.01}]\\\\=200(1878.84663)\\=375,769.326

Future value is $375,769.33

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Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
Sprout has created a unique market offering by integrating its programs with both children and parents. This unique offering tha
FrozenT [24]

Answer: Differentiating

Explanation:

Sprout company as described in the question are making use of product differentiation to ensure parents and children consumption needs are met. Product differentiation in marketing occurs when a company distinguishes their products to meet the needs of the different types of consumer groups available in their target market.

8 0
3 years ago
During her day, Tiara often works on about eight different cars fixing any problems and making suggestions to customers about ho
umka2103 [35]

Answer:

Maintenance, Installation, and Repair

Explanation:

Heres some evedence to proove:

During her day, Tiara often works on about eight different cars fixing any problems and making suggestions to customers about how to keep their cars in working condition. She manipulates numbers throughout the day to get her customers the best price possible. Based on her tasks, which most likely is her career?

^O^

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Blain Company has $10,000 of accounts receivable that are current, $5,000 that are between 0 and 30 days past due, $3,000 that a
True [87]

Answer:

d. $1050.

Explanation:

We multiply each account balance by the expected uncollectible amount and then addd them to get the expected total for doutful accounts

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}Date&Amount&Expected&uncollectible\\$not due&10000&0.02&200\\$up to 30&5000&0.05&250\\$up to 60&3000&0.1&300\\$more than 61&800&0.5&400\\&&Total&1150\\\end{array}\right]

Balance of the allowance account:  100

The expense will be the adjustment made on the allowance to get the expected balance of 1,150

1,150 - 100 = 1,050

we increase the allowance bu 1,050 to get our expected uncollectible fro maccounts receivable agaisnt the bad debt expense ofthe period.

8 0
3 years ago
The basic purpose of imposing legal reserve requirements on commercial banks is to: A. Assure the liquidity of commercial banks
Aliun [14]

Answer:

Provide a device through which the credit-creating activities of banks can be controlled

Explanation:

The legal reserve requirement is the minimum amount mandated by Central banks for banks to have as their minimum reserves.

The legal reserve requirement is used by the government as a means to control the supply of money in the economy.

If the central bank wants to reduce money supply, it increases the legal reserve requirement and if it wants to increase money supply, it reduces the legal reserve requirement.

A high reserve requirement reduces the amount that banks can make available for loans.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
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