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grandymaker [24]
3 years ago
11

The coefficient of 8 · 2N is _____.

Mathematics
2 answers:
SSSSS [86.1K]3 years ago
6 0
I believe the answer you are looking for is 2.
julsineya [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The coefficient of 8\cdot 2N is 16.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : Expression 8\cdot 2N

To find : The coefficient of the expression ?

Solution :

Step 1 - Write the expression,

8\cdot 2N

Step 2 - Multiply the terms,

8\cdot 2N=16N

Step 3 - Write the coefficient of N,

In 16N the coefficient of n is 16.

Therefore, The coefficient of 8\cdot 2N is 16.

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6. Solve the problem.
Assoli18 [71]

Answer: 32

Step-by-step explanation:

we have in this case  right triangle with a leg equal to 24 and a hypotenuse equal to 40

c^2=a^2+b^2

40^2=24^2+b^2

b^2=1600-576=1024

b=sqrt1024=32

4 0
3 years ago
Compare the properties of each function. Please help I will give brainliest.
prisoha [69]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  • both are linear functions with a y-intercept of 3 and domain of all real numbers
  • f(x) has positive slope, so a range of all real numbers
  • g(x) has zero slope, so a range of only the value 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Both functions are shown in the attached graph. Both are linear functions with a y-intercept of 3. Both have a domain of all real numbers.

Function A has a positive slope, so has a range of all real numbers.

Function B has a zero slope, so its range is the single number y = 3.

5 0
3 years ago
What is the solution to 4w=2/3
grigory [225]
2/12 or 1/6. You have to divide 2/3 by 4 to get what w equals to.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Angela enjoys swimming and often swims at a steady pace to burn calories. At this pace, Angela can swim 1,700 meters in 40 minut
geniusboy [140]
1700÷40= 42.5 

step one: you divide 40 into 1700
step two: you find the closest number that goes into 1700 which is 4 so 40×4= 160
step three: then you subtract 1700 from 160 and you'll get 100
step four: then you'll find the closest number that goes into a 100 and that will be 2 so 40×2=80
step 5: you'll then subtract 100 from 80 and you'll get 20 
step 6: you when then add a decimal and add an extra 0 to 1700 so you will now have 17000 you will bring down the 0 to make 20 into 200 and you will find the closest number that will go into 200 which will be 5 cause 40×5= 200 so you're answer will be 42.5units

7 0
3 years ago
What does the ratio 6 to 8 represent in the situation?
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

its 80

Step-by-step explanation:

the ratio is 80 hope this helps!

8 0
2 years ago
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