1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Gnesinka [82]
3 years ago
14

If the president has signed a treaty with another nation, then the treaty has become what legally?

History
1 answer:
yawa3891 [41]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

I believe the answer is: after being approved by the senate

This power is written under the article II of the united states constitution, The treaty would become a law after at least 2/3 of the senates votes in favour of it. Despite having this power, the senates cannot ratify the treaties. They can only either approves or rejects a resolution of ratification.

Read more on Brainly.com - brainly.com/question/1890147#readmore

You might be interested in
Which best describes the policy stemming from the 1896 Plessy v. Ferguson Supreme Court decision?
Naddik [55]
The answer should be separate but equal. Hope this helps. (ノ◕ヮ◕)ノ*:・゚✧
5 0
3 years ago
According to Washington, about how many British
natka813 [3]

Answer:

The answer should be 1,300 soldiers.

Explanation:

Because it says when they came they were attacked by French and Indians of 300 men so that eliminates that answer. At the end where it mentions the officers, it says that nearly 60 were killed which you can infer is talking about a portion of the whole army which in turn eliminates 60 as a possible answer as well.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What was the effect of surplus food on the creation of governments
natta225 [31]

Answer:

the food roots

Explanation:

anwser

8 0
3 years ago
Otto von Bismarck was appointed _____ of Germany by King Wilhelm I in 1871.
baherus [9]
A) I did a little research and found this out.
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Roosevelt Corollary (1904) to the Monroe
m_a_m_a [10]
The Roosevelt Corollary (1904) to the Monroe Doctrine proclaimed the right o the United States to 1. intervene in the internal affairs of Latin American nations. The Corollary was to the earlier Monroe Doctrine, which told European powers to stay our of Western Hemispheric affairs. Roosevelt's reasoning was that the United States would have to intervene were Latin American countries to weak to provide funds or infrastructure necessary for the support of trade. If those countries could not support trade, the US would have to intervene because a failure of trade would, purportedly, negatively affect the US's ability to manage the affairs of the region.
8 0
4 years ago
Other questions:
  • Complete the following sentence. Adam Smith believed that government should never intervene in a state's economy, but instead al
    12·1 answer
  • Why did christopher columbus ventured into the caribbean in 1492
    13·1 answer
  • As he took office in 1969, President Nixon announced that a new era of __________ with the Soviets and Chinese would replace the
    12·1 answer
  • Who is known as “kingfish”? huey long charles coughlin theodore roosevelt francis townsend alfred smith?
    5·2 answers
  • . Provide 3 reasons for why the study of history remains important in the age of Google.
    10·1 answer
  • Priests played important roles in building missions and settlements for which of the following?
    9·2 answers
  • What’s the significance of legalism
    11·1 answer
  • Why was ending segregation so difficult
    7·1 answer
  • Once civilizations formed, people started to remain in a single place. Which of the following was a direct result of this occurr
    14·1 answer
  • Which nations gain superpower status after World War II
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!