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Murrr4er [49]
3 years ago
15

If someone who is homozygous for an autosomal recessive disorder mates with a person who does

Biology
1 answer:
slamgirl [31]3 years ago
5 0

They have a zero percent chance of developing the disease

All the offspring will be carriers of the mutated gene but none of them will show any phenotype associated with the recessive allele. This is because they all will have the dominant allele that will mask the effects of the recessive allele of the gene.

Explanation:

Autosomal means that the allele is not on the X or Y sex chromosomes hence it is not a sex-linked gene. Male and female offspring have equal chances of acquiring the allele of the genes.  

Let us assume that the dominant allele is coded by B while that of the recessive is coded by b. The <em>attached</em> Punnet square will show the Mendelian  inheritance based on the information from the question.

Therefore, all the offspring will be carriers of the mutated gene but none of them will show any characteristics of the disorder (phenotype) associated with the recessive allele. This is because they will all have the dominant allele that will mask the effects of the recessive allele of the gene.

Learn More:

For more on Mendelian Inheritance check out;

brainly.com/question/11797208

brainly.com/question/3559454

#LearnWithBrainly

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