First of all, we need to convert the final angular velocity from rpm (revolutions per minute) to rad/s. Keeping in mind that
![1 rev = 2\pi rad](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=1%20rev%20%3D%202%5Cpi%20rad)
![1 min = 60 s](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=1%20min%20%3D%2060%20s)
We have
![\omega _f = 1500 \frac{rev}{min} \cdot \frac{2 \pi rad/rev}{60 s/m}=0.157 rad/s](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Comega%20_f%20%3D%201500%20%20%5Cfrac%7Brev%7D%7Bmin%7D%20%5Ccdot%20%20%5Cfrac%7B2%20%5Cpi%20rad%2Frev%7D%7B60%20s%2Fm%7D%3D0.157%20rad%2Fs%20%20)
the angular acceleration is given by
![\alpha = \frac{\omega _f - \omega _i}{\Delta t}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Calpha%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Comega%20_f%20-%20%5Comega%20_i%7D%7B%5CDelta%20t%7D%20)
where
![\omega _i](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Comega%20_i)
is the initial velocity (in this case, zero), and
![\Delta t](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5CDelta%20t)
is the time needed to accelerate the drill to its final velocity. Using
![\alpha = 64.3 rad/s^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Calpha%20%3D%2064.3%20rad%2Fs%5E2)
, we can calculate
![\Delta t](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5CDelta%20t)
:
Answer:
a. for any force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Explanation:
Newton third law of motion states that " for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Action force= reaction force =
M₁ * a₁ = M₂ * a₂
where M₁ = mass of object 1
a₁ = acceleration due to object 1
M₂ = mass of object 2
a₂ = corresponding acceleration due to object 2
this happen in everyday life of an individual. an example is seen in a groups of three man exerting a push force on a static car, the push force on the car make the car to exhibit some motion equivalent to the force applied by the three man.
Most of the time heat melts solids. hope that helps :)
11 is the answer for this question
The ratio of output force to the input force is generally the mechanical advantage of the machine.