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miss Akunina [59]
3 years ago
15

The short-run aggregate supply curve is upsloping because higher price levels lower interest rates and encourage firms to invest

and produce more create incentives to expand output when resource prices are unresponsive to price-level changes encourage importation of foreign goods create an expectation among producers of still higher price levels
Business
1 answer:
devlian [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: Create incentives to expand output when resource prices are unresponsive to price-level changes

Explanation:

High price levels indeed create incentives to expand output if resource prices are unresponsive to price changes.

What this means is that, when price levels rise, suppliers tend to take advantage of this rise by producing more if, their INPUTS DON'T increase in price as well.

For example, price of steel goes up by $5 but the price of Iron Ore remains the same.

Suppliers and Producers will produce more steel because they can make a high profit because iron ore prices have not changed.

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Letter D. W-4 is the answer to your question.
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Richard Beck has a life insurance policy which he has modified to include an accidental death benefit payable to his son and dau
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Answer:

The correct answer is number (1): double indemnity provision.

Explanation:

A double indemnity provision is added in life insurance to double the amount the beneficiaries of the policyholder receive in front of his or her death in an accident. Double indemnity provision does not cover events in which the policyholder dies because of natural reasons or when those individuals had hazardous jobs. Premiums are higher with a double indemnity provision.

7 0
3 years ago
One year ago, Alpha Supply issued 15-year bonds at par. The bonds have a coupon rate of 6.5 percent, paid semiannually, and a fa
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Answer:

option (C) - 6.11%

Explanation:

Data provided :

Coupon rate one year ago = 6.5% = 0.065

Semiannual coupon rate = \frac{0.065}{2} = 0.0325

Face value = $1,000

Present market yield = 7.2% = 0.072

Semiannual Present market yield, r = \frac{0.072}{2} = 0.036

Now,

With semiannual coupon rate bond price one year ago, C

= 0.0325 × $1,000

= $32.5

Total period in 15 years = 15 year - 1 year = 14 year

or

n = 14 × 2 = 28 semiannual periods

Therefore,

The present value = C\times[\frac{(1-(1+r)^{-n})}{r}]+FV(1+r)^{-n}

= \$32.5\times[\frac{(1-(1+0.036)^{-28})}{0.036}]+\$1,000\times(1+0.036)^{-28}

or

= $32.5 × 17.4591 + $1,000 × 0.37147

= $567.42 + $371.47

= $938.89

Hence,

The percent change in bond price = \frac{\textup{Final price - Initial price}}{\textup{Initial price}}\times100\%

= \frac{\textup{938.89-1,000}}{\textup{1,000}}

= - 6.11%

therefore,

the correct answer is option (C) - 6.11%

4 0
3 years ago
In a market economy, a high price will usually cause
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What is - x when x=12
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