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enyata [817]
3 years ago
10

The main reason people save during their working years is: a. a preference toward matching income with spending over time. b. a

high time preference for the present. c. an expectation that they will die early. d. a preference for a smooth consumption path over time.
Business
2 answers:
FrozenT [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: The correct answer is "d. a preference toward a smooth consumption path over time.".

Explanation: The main reason people save during their working years is a preference toward a smooth consumption path over time since they prefer to consume what is just and necessary so that in the future, even if they are affected by different circumstances, they can continue to maintain the same standard of living and / or consumption.

Misha Larkins [42]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is a. a preference toward matching income with spending over time.

Explanation:

The main reason people save during their working years is to spend it when their income are lower at the time of their retirement.

So,  from the given options the correct answer is  a. a preference toward matching income with spending over time.

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An investor sold 100 shares of ran common stock short at $50 per share. the ran is now at $38. the investor is still bearish on
Anni [7]

If the investor is my client, i will advise him to enter a buy stop order at $40.

<h3>What is the buy stop order?</h3>

In the share market, these are protective tool that are mainly for short sellers.

Now, as the stock should begin to rise from its current price of $38, once it reaches or exceeds $40, a buy order at the market is entered.

Hence, the stock purchased is used to cover the short position and the investor's profit is the $50 sale price minus the cost of the purchase.

However, because the investor is short term person, the only protective order would be a buy and not a sell.

Therefore, i will advise him to enter a buy stop order at $40

Read more about buy stop order

<em>brainly.com/question/14206094</em>

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7 0
2 years ago
Assume Simple Co. had credit sales of $249,000 and cost of goods sold of $149,000 for the period. Simple uses the percentage of
ella [17]

Answer:

$5,220

Explanation:

The computation of the bad debt expense for the period end adjustment is shown below:

= Allowance of bad debts + credit balance of  Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

where,

Allowance of bad debts = 2% × $249,000 = $4,980

And, the credit balance of  Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $240

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $4,980 + $240

= $5,220

The journal entry is shown below:

Bad debt expense A/c Dr $5,220

   To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $5,220

(Being bad debt is recorded)

5 0
3 years ago
If the fed believes the economy is about to fall into​ recession, it should
Otrada [13]
<span>If the Fed believes the economy is about to fall into​ recession, it should use an expansionary monetary policy to lower the interest rate and shift AD to the right. When using an expansionary monetary policy a central bank will use its tools to stimulate the economy. They increase the supply of money, lower interest rates and increase aggregate demand. 

</span>
5 0
4 years ago
Global Tek is a new firm in a rapidly growing industry. The company is planning on increasing its annual dividend by 16 percent
Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

The value of the stock is $2.558

Explanation:

We need to calculate the present value of future cash flows to calculate the Stock value

First Calculate each year's Dividend

Use the following formula to calculate the expected dividend

Expected Dividend = Current Dividend x ( 1 + Growth rate )^n

Year ______ Working _________ Dividend

1 ______ $0.20 x ( 1 + 16% )^1 ____ $0.232

2______ $0.20 x ( 1 + 16% )^2 ____ $0.269

3______ $0.20 x ( 1 + 16% )^3 ____ $0.312

4______ $0.20 x ( 1 + 16% )^4 ____ $0.362

5______$0.362 x ( 1 + 3.5% ) _____$0.375

Now calculate the present value of each year's dividend using following formula

PV = Dividend / ( 1 + required rate of return )^numbers of years

Year _____ Working ______________________ PRESENT VALUES

1 ______ $0.232 / ( 1 + 15.5% )^1 _____________ $0.201

2______ $0.269 / ( 1 + 15.5% )^2 _____________$0.202

3______ $0.312 / ( 1 + 15.5% )^3 _____________ $0.203

4______ $0.362 / ( 1 + 15.5% )^4 _____________$0.203

5______$0.375 / (15.5% - 3.5% ) ) / ( 1 + 15.5% ) __$1.749

Now calculate the sum of present value of all the dividends

Value of stock = $0.201 + $0.202 + $0.203 + $0.203 + $1.755

Value of stock = $2.558

8 0
3 years ago
nder the general transfer pricing rule with excess capacity, the opportunity cost would be equal: Multiple Choice zero. the dire
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

ZERO.

Explanation:

A transfer price normally is used to determine the cost to charge another division, subsidiary, or holding company for services rendered. It is said that transfer prices are priced based on the going market price for that good or service. Transfer pricing can also be applied to intellectual property such as research, patents, and royalties.

However, companies at times can also use (or misuse) this practice by altering their taxable income, thus reducing their overall taxes. The transfer pricing mechanism is a way that companies can shift tax liabilities to low-cost tax jurisdictions.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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