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stiv31 [10]
3 years ago
10

How auto insurance companies manage risk ?​

Business
2 answers:
boyakko [2]3 years ago
7 0

Hello there!

Auto insurance companies manage risk by charging low-risk drivers with lower rates, while charging higher-risk drivers with higher rates.

This is pretty much known as a "trust" thing with the driver and the auto insurance company.

Auto insurance companies charge lower rates for low-risk drivers because they can "trust" them more. Since the low-risk driver has a lower chance of getting into an accident, insurance doesn't need to get a lot of money from them for a accident. These drivers tend to have more experience on the road, good driving records, lower value cars, etc. There are many factors that lead to a insurance company charging a person lower rates.

Auto insurance companies charge higher rates for high-risk drivers because they have a higher chance of getting into an accident. You can probably say that insurance companies "do not trust" these drivers that much, therefore charging them with higher rates. There are different factors that make insurance rates high for someone. People who are teenagers, expensive cars, bad driving record, etc. Let's give you a more realistic example: I own a Lamborghini Huracan (the one in my profile picture) and I pay about $5,700 in total for a year for that car alone. The reason why it's so high is because expensive cars have a higher chance of getting into a accident, due to it being very fast and parts for the car are not cheap.

Nana76 [90]3 years ago
4 0

____________________________________________________

Answer:

Insurance companies manages risk by balancing the low-risk drivers and the high-risk drivers. Insurance would charge higher rates for high risk drivers.

____________________________________________________

Explanation:

Insurance companies manages risk by sorting out the people who have a lower chance of risking a crash, with people who have a higher chance of risking a crash. They do this by charging low rates to the people that have a lower chance of causing a risk. They charge them low because they are trustworthy, and don't need to rack up a lot of money quick if they ever get into a crash. Remember, insurance makes people pay monthly so they could use that money in a accident.

But, this is different for people with higher risk. People that have a high risk of getting into an accident would be charged with a higher rate than people with lower risk. Insurance companies charge them with higher rates because since higher risk drivers get are more likely to get into an accident, insurance companies want to make sure that they can get the money for the accident as soon as possible. Insurance companies are the ones that pay for the accident, and that's why most places require you to have insurance while you drive.

____________________________________________________

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1.2 Which of the following is not a nominal account?
bonufazy [111]

Answer:

i can say is capital

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
A firm's attempts to shorten the length of time a process takes, may lead to disappointing outcomes because of ______.
liraira [26]

A firm's attempts to shorten the length of time a process takes may lead to disappointing outcomes because of time compression diseconomies.

<h3>What are time compression diseconomies?</h3>
  • According to time compression diseconomies, which are defined as inefficiencies that arise when work is done more quickly, the cost of building a competency will rise exponentially as the amount of time permitted to do so decreases.
  • Not every subsidiary deals with time compression diseconomies to the same extent.
  • The date of a later subsidiary formation may affect how strong TCD is. Early-established subsidiaries may have greater TCD than later entries due to two factors.
  • First, for late movers, vicarious learning may lower TCD. Second, TCD is made worse by the higher environmental uncertainty that early mover subsidiaries frequently experience.
  • TCD explains why the well-studied relationship between the level of multi-nationality and business success is negatively moderated by the rate of overseas expansion.

To learn more about Diseconomies refer to:

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4 0
1 year ago
14-2B (Issuance and Retirement of Bonds) StarCenter Co. Is building a new music arena at a cost of $5,600,000. It received a dow
mezya [45]

Answer:

there are no requirements, but I assume that they ask about issuance costs and their amortization:

market price of the bonds:

PV of face value = $5,000,000 / (1 + 10%)²⁰ = $743,218

PV of coupon payments = $400,000 x 8.5136 (PV annuity factor, 10%, 20 periods) = $3,405,440

market price = $4,148,658

Journal entry to record issuance and bond issue costs

January 1, 2013

Dr Cash 4,088,658

Dr Discount on bonds payable 851,342

Dr Bond issue costs 60,000

    Cr Bonds payable 5,000,000

amortization of bond discount and issue costs = ($4,088,658 x 10%) - $400,000 = $8,865.80 ≈ $8,866

allocation to bond issue costs = ($60,000 / $911,342) x $8,866 = $583.71  ≈ $584

allocation to bond discount = $8,866 - $584 = $8,282

Journal entry to record first coupon payment

January 1, 2014

Dr Interest expense 408,866

    Cr Cash 400,000

    Cr Discount on bonds payable 8,282

    Cr Bond issue costs 584

4 0
2 years ago
Billings Company has the following information available for September 2017.
kumpel [21]

Answer:

Part a

Contribution Margin = 29.95% (2 d.p)

Part b

                             Billing Company

                 CVP Income for as at September 2017

                                                      Total                      Per Unit

                                                         $                               $

Sales                                          295704                       444

Less Variable Costs                  (138084)                      (311)

Contribution                               157620                        133

Fixed Costs                                 (59850)                     89.86

Net Income                                  97770                       43.14

Part c

Billing`s break even point is 450 units

Part d

                                    Billing Company

     CVP Income for as at September 2017 - Break Even Point

                                                      Total                      Per Unit

                                                         $                               $

Sales                                           199800                       444

Less Variable Costs                  (139950)                      (311)

Contribution                                59850                        133

Fixed Costs                                 (59850)                      133

Net Income                                       0                              0

Explanation:

Part a

Contribution Margin = Contribution/Sales × 100

Therefore contribution margin is  ($444-$311)/$444 * 100 = 29.95% (2 d.p)

Part b

Sales - Variable Cost = Contribution

Net Income  =   Contribution - Total Fixed Costs                            

Part c

Break Even Point is when Billings neither makers a profit or loss.

Break Even Point ( Units) = Total Fixed Cost/Contribution per unit

Therefore Break Even Point (Units) = $59850/$133 = 450 units

Part d

The total and unit CVP should neither reflect a profit or loss at a capacity of 450 units as this is the break even point. In this case profit = nill

7 0
3 years ago
Koebel Corp uses a job order costing system with manufacturing overhead applied to products on the basis of direct labor hours.
Lynna [10]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

a. Calculate the predetermined overhead rate Overhead Rate per hour

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= $ 921,600/51,200

= $ 18

(b) Calculate how much manufacturing overhead will be applied to production

Manufacturing overhead that'll be applied to production will be the predetermined overhead rate multiplied by the actual total direct labor hours. This will be:

= $ 18 × 48,900 direct labor hours

= $ 880,200

(c) Is overhead over- or underapplied? By how much?

The Actual Overhead Incurred = $902,900 while the manufacturing overhead applied = $880,200. This shows that overhead is underapplied due to the fact that manufacturing overhead applied is less than the actual overhead that is incurred.

Therefore, the amount of overhead that was underapplied will be:

= $ 902,900 - $ 880,200

= $ 22,700

(d) What account should be adjusted for over-or underapplied overhead? Should the balance be increased or decreased?

Based on the scenario in the question and the answers calculated, the cost of goods sold should be increased.

4 0
3 years ago
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