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olga55 [171]
3 years ago
13

Find f. f ''(θ) = sin(θ) + cos(θ), f(0) = 2, f '(0) = 1 f(θ) =

Mathematics
2 answers:
Lunna [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

f(theta)=sin(theta) - cos(theta) + C

This is my first time doing a double integral, so im only 90% sure in my answer

Step-by-step explanation:

You pretty much want to take the double integral of sinx + cosx

The anti-derivative of sinx = -cosx

The anti-derivative of cosx = sinx

So f' = -cosx + sinx

Now lets take the integral of f':

The anti-derivative of -cosx = sinx

The anti-derivative of sinx = -cosx

So, f(x) = sinx - cosx

liq [111]3 years ago
7 0
<h3>Answer:    f(θ) = -sin(θ) - cos(θ) + 2θ + 3</h3>

============================================================

Work Shown:

I'll use x in place of theta since its easier to type on a keyboard.

f '' (x) = sin(x) + cos(x)

f ' (x) = -cos(x) + sin(x) + C ..... integrate both sides; dont forget the plus C

f ' (0) = 1

f ' (0) = -cos(0) + sin(0) + C

-cos(0) + sin(0) + C = 1

-1 + 0 + C = 1

C = 1+1

C = 2

So,

f ' (x) = -cos(x) + sin(x) + C

turns into

f ' (x) = -cos(x) + sin(x) + 2

----------------------------

Now integrate both sides of the first derivative to get the original f(x) function

f ' (x) = -cos(x) + sin(x) + 2

f(x) = -sin(x) - cos(x) + 2x + D .... apply integral; D is some constant

f(0) = -sin(0) - cos(0) + 2(0) + D

f(0) = 0 - 1 + 0 + D

f(0) = D - 1

f(0) = 2

D-1 = 2

D = 2+1

D = 3

We have f(x) = -sin(x) - cos(x) + 2x + D update to f(x) = -sin(x) - cos(x) + 2x + 3

----------------------------

So f '' (x) = sin(x) + cos(x) becomes f(x) = -sin(x) - cos(x) + 2x + 3 when f(0) = 2 and f ' (0) = 1

The last step is to replace every x with theta so that we get back to the original variable.

f(x) = -sin(x) - cos(x) + 2x + 3   turns into   f(θ) = -sin(θ) - cos(θ) + 2θ + 3

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777dan777 [17]

Answer:

(a) The distribution of X=\sum\limits^{n}_{i=1}{X_{i}} is a Binomial distribution.

(b) The sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal.

(c) The value of P(\bar X>0.50) is 0.50.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is provided that random variables X_{i} are independent and identically distributed Bernoulli random variables with <em>p</em> = 0.50.

The random sample selected is of size, <em>n</em> = 100.

(a)

Theorem:

Let X_{1},\ X_{2},\ X_{3},...\ X_{n} be independent Bernoulli random variables, each with parameter <em>p</em>, then the sum of of thee random variables, X=X_{1}+X_{2}+X_{3}...+X_{n} is a Binomial random variable with parameter <em>n</em> and <em>p</em>.

Thus, the distribution of X=\sum\limits^{n}_{i=1}{X_{i}} is a Binomial distribution.

(b)

According to the Central Limit Theorem if we have an unknown population with mean <em>μ</em> and standard deviation <em>σ</em> and appropriately huge random samples (<em>n</em> > 30) are selected from the population with replacement, then the distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normally distributed.  

The sample size is large, i.e. <em>n</em> = 100 > 30.

So, the sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal.

The mean of the distribution of sample mean is given by,

\mu_{\bar x}=\mu=p=0.50

And the standard deviation of the distribution of sample mean is given by,

\sigma_{\bar x}=\sqrt{\frac{\sigma^{2}}{n}}=\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}=0.05

(c)

Compute the value of P(\bar X>0.50) as follows:

P(\bar X>0.50)=P(\frac{\bar X-\mu_{\bar x}}{\sigma_{\bar x}}>\frac{0.50-0.50}{0.05})\\

                    =P(Z>0)\\=1-P(Z

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the value of P(\bar X>0.50) is 0.50.

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The answer is (0,3)

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