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charle [14.2K]
3 years ago
14

Use Definition 7.1.1, DEFINITION 7.1.1 Laplace Transform LetUse Definition 7.1.1, DEFINITION 7.1.1 Laplace Transform Let f be a

function defined for t ≥ 0. Then the integral ℒ{f(t)} = [infinity] e−stf(t) dt 0 is said to be the Laplace transform of f, provided that the integral converges. to find ℒ{f(t)}. (Write your answer as a function of s.) WebAssign Plotf be a function defined for t ≥ 0. Then the integral ℒ{f(t)} = [infinity] e−stf(t) dt 0 is said to be the Laplace transform of f, provided that the integral converges. to find ℒ{f(t)}. (Write your answer as a function of s.) f(t) = cos(t), 0 ≤ t < π 0, t ≥ π
Mathematics
2 answers:
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The laplace transform is F(s) = \frac{s(1+e^{-s\pi})}{s^2+1}

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us asume that f(t) =0 for t<0. So, by definition, the laplace transform is given by:

I = \int_{0}^\pi e^{-st}\cos(t) dt

To solve this integral, we will use integration by parts. Let u= cos(t)  and dv = e^{-st}, so v=\frac{-e^{st}}{s} and du = -sin(t), then, in one step of the integration we have that

I = \left.\frac{-\cos(t) e^{-st}}{s}\right|_{0}^\pi- \int_{0}^\pi \frac{\sin(t) e^{-st}}{s} dt

Let I_2 = \int_{0}^\pi \frac{\sin(t) e^{-st}}{s} dt. We will integrate I_2 again by parts. Choose u = sin(t) and dv = \frac{e^{-st}}{s}. So

I_2 = \left.\frac{-\sin(t) e^{-st}}{s^2}\right|_{0}^\pi + \int_{0}^\pi \frac{\cos(t) e^{-st}}{s^2}dt

Therefore,

I = \left.\frac{-\cos(t) e^{-st}}{s}\right|_{0}^\pi - (\left.\frac{-\sin(t) e^{-st}}{s^2}\right|_{0}^\pi - \frac{1}{s^2} I

which is an equation for the variabl I. Solving for I we have that

I(\frac{s^2+1}{s^2}) =\left.\frac{-\cos(t) e^{-st}}{s}\right|_{0}^\pi+\left.\frac{\sin(t) e^{-st}}{s^2}\right|_{0}^\pi

Then,

I = \left.\frac{-s\cos(t) e^{-st}}{s^2+1}\right|_{0}^\pi+\left.\frac{\sin(t) e^{-st}}{s^2+1}\right|_{0}^\pi.

Note that since the sine function is 0 at 0 and pi, we must only care on the first term. Then

I =  \left.\frac{-s\cos(t) e^{-st}}{s^2+1}\right|_{0}^\pi = \frac{s}{s^2+1}(1-(-1)e^{-s\pi}} = \frac{s(1+e^{-s\pi})}{s^2+1}

Charra [1.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

F(s) = \frac{s(e^{\pi s}+1)}{s^2 +1}

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the formula for Laplace the transformations if F(s)  is the converted function then

F(s) = \int\limits_{0}^{\infty} e^{-st} \cos(t) dt = \int\limits_{0}^{\pi} e^{-st} \cos(t) dt

To solve that integral you need to use integration by parts, when you do integration by parts you get that

F(s) = \frac{s(e^{\pi s}+1)}{s^2 +1}.

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Since 95% confidence interval contains 0 we conclude at 95% confidence level that the two means are equal.

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Given that in a  fast food study a researcher finds that mean sodium content of 32 Wendy's fish sandwiches is 1080 milligrams with a standard deviation of 75 milligrams. The mean sodium content of 39 Long John Silver's fish sandwiches is 1120 milligrams with a standard deviation of 100 milligrams

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