Answer:
4⁰ is the answer
Step-by-step explanation:
because first you change the division sign to a multiplication sign because they are the same and then multiply the terms with same base by adding their exponent which looks like this 4⁵-⁷+²
then calculate the sum or difference and you get 4⁰ [hopefully this makes sense]
Answer:
rod waves can give u the answer for that just play a some him
<h2>
Hello!</h2>
The answer is: 33.33%
<h2>Why?</h2>
Since we have the average number of accidents that occurs in 1 month, and it's equal to 3, we can calculate the probability of 1 accident occurs by dividing it into the average number of accidents, using the following formula:

Where,
Favorable outcomes are the occurrence of the event, for this case, it's equal to 1.
Outcomes are the possible occurrence of the event, for this case, it's equal to 3.
So, by substituting we have:


So, the probability will be equal to 33.33%
Have a nice day!
The first step for solving this problem is to multiply both sides of the bottom equation by -3.

Add the two equations together.
6x - 9y - 6x + 9y = 16 - 21
Eliminate the opposites.
-9y + 9y = 16 - 21
Remember that the sum of two opposites equals 0,, so the equation becomes the following:
0 = 16 - 21
Calculate the difference on the right side of the equation.
0 = -5
This means that the statement

is false for any value of x and y. That means that the answer to your question is (x,y) ∈ ∅,, or no solution.
Let me know if you have any further questions.
:)