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Gnoma [55]
3 years ago
10

What is the step by step and on this expression 4b+9+b

Mathematics
2 answers:
bulgar [2K]3 years ago
7 0

\huge\boxed{5b+9}

All you need to do to simplify this expression is combine the like terms.

First, let's rearrange the terms. In this case, we will put the variables together and the constants together. 4b+b+9

Now, we combine the variables. In this case, b doesn't have a coefficient, so we can assume it is 1. 4b+1b+9

Add 4+1. \boxed{5b+9}

AleksAgata [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

5b + 9

Step-by-step explanation:

You are essentially trying to simplify the expression given to you. To do so, combine terms with like terms:

4b + 9 + b

In this case, combine all terms with the same amount of variables, b.

(4b + b) + 9 = 5b + 9

5b + 9 is your answer.

~

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Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

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  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

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If you call x the number of bottles the equation is

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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7 0
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