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AleksAgata [21]
3 years ago
6

Buerhle Company needs to determine if its indefinite-life intangibles other than goodwill have been impaired and should be reduc

ed or written off on its balance sheet. The impairment test(s) to be used is (are):A. Both recoverability test and fair value testB. Recoverability test but not fair value testC. Not recoverability test but fair value testD. Neither recoverability test nor fair value test
Business
1 answer:
Vera_Pavlovna [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option C Not recoverability test but fair value test

Explanation:

The reason is that the standard on impairment IAS 36 Impairment of Assets says that the assets with indefinite life must tested for impairment every accounting year end. The test only includes whether the fair value of the asset has been decreased or not. This test is helpful by asking questions that asks about the decrease in the life of the asset due to a new legislation, the performance of the asset is fallen (oil is less extracted now than before because the oil is not reachable), etc. The standard does not permits to use Recoverability test as it will come later once the company is sure that the asset fair value has been decreased.

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A monopolistic seller of sports cars has traced out the following demand curve: 10 customers have willingness to pay (WTP) of $1
Romashka [77]

Answer:

The answer is: 1) II > I > III

Explanation:

<u>Pricing scheme I: $2 million profit</u>

  • Price $150,000
  • Contribution margin = $150,000 - $50,000 = $100,000
  • 35 units sold x $100,000 = $3.5 million
  • profit = $3.5 million - $1.5M = $2 million

<u>Pricing scheme II: 2.25 million profit</u>

  • Price $200,000
  • Contribution margin = $200,000 - $50,000 = $150,000
  • 25 units sold x $150,000 = $3.75 million
  • profit = $3.75 million - $1.5M = $2.25 million

<u>Pricing scheme III: $1.5 million profit</u>

  • Price $250,000
  • Contribution margin = $250,000 - $50,000 = $200,000
  • 15 units sold x $200,000 = $3 million
  • profit = $3 million - $1.5M = $1.5 million

8 0
3 years ago
Cash $207,200 Salaries and wages expense (sales) $318,080 Inventory 599,200 Salaries and wages expense (office) 387,520 Sales re
yawa3891 [41]

Answer:

 condenced income statement  

   

net sales                                  4699520

cost of sales                          (3097360)

opening stock     599200  

purchase            3120320  

returns                   ( 16800 )

frieght in                     80640  

closing stock             (686000)  

gross profit                              1602160

other incomes                      299040

purchase discount  30240  

rent income                268800  

expenses                               (1092448 )

office salary                 387520  

sales salary                 31808  

sales discount         38080  

commission                 92960  

selling costs                 77280  

telephone costs         19040  

accounting service 36960  

utility costs                35840  

insurance                26880  

mascellaneous         8960  

advertising               60480  

delivery costs               104160  

casuality loss               78400  

depreciation-office 53760  

depreciation-sales         40320  

   

operating profit                        808752

interest expense         197120     (  197120 )

profit before tax                          611632

tax expense                                (122326.4)

profit after tax                                           <u>489305.6</u>

Explanation:

To get the net sales we take sales and minus sales return. The unearned sales are not to be recorded until they are earned and its performance obligation is satisfied. The balance sheet items such as common stock, cash do not belong in the statement of comprehensive incomes. T o calculate tax expense we take profit before tax and multiply by the tax rate.

8 0
4 years ago
What is the purpose of using predetermined overhead rates: Variation in cost assignment due to short-term variations in volume c
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

All of the answers are correct.

Explanation:

At the beginning of the accounting period a pre-determined overhead is computed by dividing the estimated overhead production by the estimated basis of operations. The default overhead rate is then applied to manufacturing, so that the standard cost for a product may be calculated

The purpose of using pretermined overhead rates are

Delays in product costing can be avoided

Variation in cost assignment due to seasonality can be prevented

Variation in cost assignment due to short-term variations in volume can be prevented

The Use of predetermined overhead rates serves all the above purposes

Hence, all answers are correct.

6 0
3 years ago
Pharoah Inc. purchased land, building, and equipment from Laguna Corporation for a cash payment of $390,600. The estimated fair
BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

Land = 65100.001

Building = 238699.999

Equipment = 86799.99

Explanation:

Total Asset Fair Value = Land + Building + Equipment

Total Asset Fair Value = $74,400+$272,800+$99,200

Total Asset Fair Value = $446400

Recorder Amount

Land = $74,400/$446400 * $390,600

Land = 65100.001

Building = $272,800/$446400 * $390,600

Building = 238699.999

Equipment = $99,200/$446400 * $390,600

Equipment = 86799.99

3 0
4 years ago
The Hill Company reported the following results:
krok68 [10]

Find the attachments for complete answer

8 0
3 years ago
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