Answer:
The correct answer is x^np (1-p)^n-1
Step-by-step explanation:
See the picture attached
Answer:
fyi b's answer has imaginary numbers in it...
Imaginary: 1 +
Imaginary: 1 -
Step-by-step explanation:
= 
... the negative root will produce imaginary solutions
Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Answer:
should be 17
Step-by-step explanation:
Yes. It is a function I don’t know why but I know it is
