Answer:
3 bags of chocolate chips
Step-by-step explanation:
72 cookies is equal to 6 dozen cookies. 18÷6 = 3. So, we have to multiply the 1 bag of chocolate chips by 3 to get the total amount of chocolate chips. 1×3=3 so it takes 3 bags of chocolate chips to make 18 dozen cookies.
Step-by-step explanation:
1. use the equation
current amount X interest to the power of years
commpound interest is 2.3%
The starting value is £7900
So: £7900*1.023^5=£8851.26
Therefore, the answer is £8851.26 after 5 years of interest added
Hope this helps!!!
Have a nice day :)
SOLUTION:
= ( 7 / 24 ) × 100%
= 29.16% ( with reciprocal of 6 )
Hope this helps! :)
Have a lovely day! <3
#1. look at the individual probability first.
A dice has 6 sides. The numbers > 2 are {3, 4, 5, 6}. So the chance of rolling a number > 2 is 4/6 or 2/3 simplified.
Multiples of 3 on a dice are {3, 6}. So the chance of rolling a multiple of 3 is 2/6 or 1/3 simplified.
Rolling a dice is an independent event, like flipping a coin the previous roll does not have an effect on the outcome of the next roll. So when you see the word AND connecting the outcomes, you multiply them.
Prob of rolling >2 AND then multiple of 3 = (2/3)*(1/3)
= 2/9
#2. The total socks in the drawer: 8+8+4= 20 socks
The probability of first drawing a blue sock is 8/20 or 2/5 simplified.
Since the question does not say the socks are put back in the drawer, the total number of socks and number of blue socks decrease by 1 after the first draw. This makes the next draw dependent on the first.
The probability of drawing a blue sock is then: 7/19
because there's a blue sock missing.
Probability of drawing blue sock AND then a blue sock (without replacement)
= (2/5)*(7/19)
= 14/95
Answer:
first person to do what?
Step-by-step explanation:
