If i remember correctly asexual reproduction came first because without asexual reproduction the cells would not have been able to produce other cells so what few cells there were reproduced asexually and then it evolved onto sexual reproduction later in development
The answer is b. because you wouldn't want a daughter cell that didn't have <em>all </em>necessary to be a complete cell, and this could be messed up if the DNA didn't replicate prior to cell division
Answer:
The correct answer is the formation of pyruvate from glucose willl be energetically less favorable.
Explanation:
According to the question matunt yeast has a shorter glycolytic pathay catalysing a follwing reaction
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate+H2O+NAD+ = 3-phosphoglycerate
So in the mutatant the formation of 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate is not occurring.The glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is directly converted into 3-phosphoglycerate.
As a result the substrate level phosphorylation step that deals with formation of 3-phosphoglycerate from 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate is not occurring.
From this point of view it can be said that less energy will be formed in the mutant during glycolysis than that of normal one.
So the formation of pyruvate from glucose will be energetically less favorable.
The offspring could receive either D or d.
Because by damaging capsids, there is no place for the bad DNA to be stored. So the drug destroys the DNA so no more of the virus can be stored in the body.
