Answer:
40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Step-by-step explanation:
For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
0.95 probaiblity of hitting a target
This means that 
10 targets
This means that 
What is the probability that he will miss at least one of them?
Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

We want P(X < 10). So

In which

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Answer:
3213 cm
Step-by-step explanation:
First draw the frame around the triangle. The circular edges added together give you 360 degrees. Use pi*r^2 to get 4pi which is around 12.56. 100cm=m. 2*500+2*400*2*700=3200.
3200+ 13 = 3213
The answer is C, 1.
In a number line, the larger number it gets, the more of the right side they're. The smaller the number, the more left side they get.
So, on a number line, 1 is just at the right side of 0, all the other options are at least one more place away from 0.
Answer:
A, 2 5/8 cups
Step-by-step explanation:
Since six dozen brownies is three times as much as two dozen, we can multiply 7/8 cups by 3. 3 x 7/8 = 21/8 If we simplify this fraction, it is 2 5/8. Therefore the answer is A, 2 5/8 cups.
This would be 1,711,596.
hope this helps!