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Mashutka [201]
3 years ago
7

Presented below are two independent situations.

Business
1 answer:
rewona [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: a)Interest expense for Year 2020=$46, 977.50 b) see explanation column

Explanation:

a) Amount of Note payable =  $550,000

Present Value  factor for 3 years at 12%

= PV = 1/(1+r) ^n  

1/ (1+ 12%)^3 =(0.892857143)^ 3 =  0.71178

Present value of Note for land at 2020 = $550,000  x  0.71176 = $391, 479

.136

Interest expense for Year 2020= $391, 479.136  x  12%= $46, 977.50

b) Face value of note = $5,000,000

Present value factor for 4 years at 10 % =

= PV = 1/(1+r) ^n  

1/ (1+ 10%)^4 =(0.909090909)^ 4 =  0.68301345

Present value of the note = $5,000,000 x 0.68301345= $3,415,067.28

Discount on note payable =$5,000,000 -$3,415,067.28 =$1,584,932.72

Journal to record amount of interest to report for 2020

Date   Account                        Debit                      Credit

Jan 2020   Cash                  $5,000,000

Discount on notes payable                             $1,584,932.72  

Notes payable                         $5,000,000

interest revenue                                              $1,584,932.72

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Brief exercise 1-9 at the beginning of the year, morales company had total assets of $816,000 and total liabilities of $526,000.
kramer

<u>Calculation of amount of stockholders' equity at the end of the year:</u>


At the beginning of the year, Morales Company had total assets of $816,000 and total assets increased $178,000 during the year, hence Total Assets at the end of the year shall be 816000+178000 = $994,000


At the beginning of the year, Morales Company had total liabilities of $526,000 and total liabilities decreased $82,000 during the year. Hence Total Liabilities at the end of the year shall be 526000-82000 = $444,000


Now we can calculate amount of stockholders' equity at the end of the year as follows:

Equity = Assets – Liabilities

= 994,000-444,000

= $550,000


Hence, the amount of stockholders' equity at the end of the year shall be <u>$550,000</u>


6 0
3 years ago
A new shop wants to sell Muffins, the sell price is 2.5 dollars per unit. The cost for production is 1 dollar per unit. At the f
FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

The price went from 2.50 dollar per unit to 1.25

And quantity sold of first hand muffin increase from 500 to 1,600

Explanation:

First day:

We build the equation and solve considering:

a= first hand muffin sold at 2.5 dollar

b = left-over sold at 0.5 dollar

considering the shop made 2,000 muffin and the cost is 1 dollar per muffin:

quantities equation: a + b = 2,000

price equation: 2.5a + 0.5b = 2,000

2.5(2,000 - b) + 0.5b = 2,000

5,000 - 2.5b + 0.5b = 2,000

3,000/2 = b = 1,500

a = 2,000 - b = 2,000  - 1,500 = 500

It sale 500 dollar of muffin at 2.5 and 1,500 at 0.5 getting a total of 2,000 revenue to cover the cost.

Second day:

There is a decrease in price to 1.25 per muffin

This generates a profit of 400 dollar thus:

(sales price less cost) x quantity = profit

(1.25 - 1) x a = 400

a = 400/0.25 = 1,600

6 0
3 years ago
Sheffield Corporation exchanged 2750 shares of Pharoah Company common stock, which Sheffield was holding as an investment, for e
AveGali [126]

Answer: Please refer to Explanation

Explanation:

When recording Equipment here the value of the shares at current value should be used and not the cost of the equipment.

DR Equipment $162,250

CR Investment in Pharaoh Company $137,500

CR Gain on Exchange $24,750

(To record Exchange of shares for Equipment)

Workings.

Investment in Pharaoh Company.

= 2,750 shares * $50(purchase price)

= $137,500

Gain on Exchange

= 2,750 shares * (Market Price - Purchase Price)

= 2,750 shares * ( 59 - 50)

= $24,750

Equipment.

= Investment in Pharoah Company + Gain on Exchange

= 137,500 + 24,750

= $162,250

6 0
3 years ago
Dudley Transport Company divides its operations into four divisions. A recent income statement for its West Division follows. DU
Ghella [55]

Answer:

Companywide income would increase by $6,000 if West Division is eliminated.

Explanation:

The amount by which the companywide income will increase or decrease if West Division is eliminated can be determined by comparing Revenue with avoidable cost.

Avoidable cost refers to the cost that will be eliminated or not incurred if a firm decides to change the course of a business.

In this question, avoidable cost is simply the cost or expenses that will be eliminated if West Division is eliminated.

Among all the expenses in the question, only Companywide facility-sustaining costs which is $78,000 cannot be eliminated if West Division is eliminated.

Therefore, avoidable cost can be calculated as follows:

Avoidable cost = Salaries for drivers + Fuel expenses + Insurance + Division-level facility-sustaining costs = 210,000 + 30,000 + 42,000 + 24,000 = $306,000

Since, Revenue = $300,000

Decision rule:

1. If revenue is greater than avoidable cost, we have a decrease in income. Therefore, the division should not be eliminated.

2. If revenue is less than avoidable cost, we have an increase in income. Therefore, the division should be eliminated.

Since the revenue of $300,000 is less than the avoidable cost of $306,000, it implies we have an increase in income based on the decision rule 2. The increase in income is calculated as follows:

Increase in income if West Division is eliminated = Avoidable cost – Revenue = $306,000 - $300,000 = $6,000

Therefore, companywide income would increase by $6,000 if West Division is eliminated

Since there would be an increase in income of $6,000, West Division should therefore be eliminated.

4 0
3 years ago
Finding the required interest rate: Your parents will retire in 18 years. They currently have $250,000, and they think they will
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

i= 8% annual compunded

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Your parents will retire in 18 years. They currently have $250,000, and they think they will need $1,000,000 at retirement.

We need to calculate the interest rate required to reach the $1 million goal in 18 years without any additional deposit.

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

Isolating i:

i= [(FV/PV)^(1/n)] - 1

i= [(1,00,000/250,000)^(1/18)] - 1= 0.08

i= 8% annual compunded

7 0
4 years ago
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