Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": True.
Explanation:
Nonmonetary assets are objects a firm possesses in which cash value is complicated to determine for accounting purposes. The value of those assets may vary with time in front of different economic scenarios. When these types of assets are sold in markets where there is few to no liquidity and the calculated amount for the object is not transferred, the loss is recognized as it happens.
false Hedging, or lowering risk, is the same as increasing the firm's value or return.
<h3>How might currency risk be reduced through hedging?</h3>
hedging to reduce the risk of currency loss. Foreign exchange risk is an unavoidable reality for businesses doing business in other countries, although hedging can help reduce the risk. By taking a contrary position in a comparable asset, the hedging technique seeks to reduce risks associated with financial assets.
<h3>What does hedge mean?</h3>
A approach for reducing the risks associated with financial assets is hedging. It uses market tactics or financial instruments to reduce the risk of any unfavorable price changes. To put it another way, investors use a trade in another investment to protect one investment.
To know more about hedging, or reducing risk, visit:-
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Answer:
Option 4 is definitely correct: Whether real GDP increased cannot be determined with the information given.
Explanation:
The information that is given only states that there has been an increase in the market value of final goods and services in two years. So, we cannot conclude that production increased in Rushya or average price levels increased there as per Option A and C respectively, because market value can be increased by both increase in production or price levels. Even Option B cannot be concluded as the real GDP is dependent on other variables as compared to the total market value.
Thus, only appropriate statement is option D: we cannot determine increase in real GDP with the given information.
Answer:
236.25
Explanation:
Calculation to determine X
First step is to calculate the 6 months Yield
6 month Yield=(40/40+20) (80/40+20) (157.60/80+80)+1)
6 month Yield=(40/60) (80/60) (157.60/160)-1
6 month Yield=5%
Second step is to calculate the Annual equivalent
Annual equivalent=(1.05)^2-1
Annual equivalent=10.25%
Third step is to calculate the 1 year yield
1 year yield=(40/50) (80/40+20) (175/80+80) (x/175+75)
1 year yield=(40/50) (80/60) (175/160) (x/250)-1
1 year yield=0.1025
Now Let calculate X
x(0.004667)=1+.1025
x(0.004667)=1.1025
x=1.1025/0.004667
x=236.25
Therefore X is 236.25