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dolphi86 [110]
3 years ago
15

Explain how opportunity cost is different for economic goods and free goods

Business
1 answer:
Pepsi [2]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The difference is that free goods have exactly zero opportunity cost, because they cost nothing, their price is zero, and their use is non rival, and non excludable, meaning that if a person uses a free good, that person does not prevent any other person from using the good.

Economic goods, on the other hand, are goods that have a price, and that have a cost of production. Besides they are rival and/or exclusionary. The opportunity cost of an economic good varies depending on the good, but it is never zero.

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Neot was just​ promoted, and what​ she's most excited about is that she now gets a corner office and a designated spot in the em
Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

Esteem needs.

Explanation:

An individual's esteem need according to Maslow is the need for respect, self esteem, status, and self confidence. Everyone wants to be valued and accepted by people, and this is esteem need. Esteem is an internal need but it is influenced by external environment when people validate and approve of a person.

North has just been promoted and along with this status change comes a corner office and a designated parking spot. This shows she is accepted and valued by the organisation.

3 0
4 years ago
suppose that aggregate demand is falling for several months in a row. describe how the economy will adjust in the long run.
Salsk061 [2.6K]

If aggregate demand in the long run is falling for several months in a row, it will make aggregate market results in an increase in the price level but no change in real production. The level of real production resulting from the aggregate demand shock is full-employment real production.

Aggregate demand can be described as a measurement of the total amount of demand for all finished services and goods produced in an economy. Aggregate demand is expressed as the total amount of money exchanged for those services and goods at a specific point in time and price level.

The model of aggregate demand and long-run aggregate supply predicts that the economy will eventually move toward its potential output. To see how nominal wage and price stickiness can cause real GDP to be either above or below potential in the short run, consider the response of the economy to a change in aggregate demand.

Learn more about aggregate demand in the link brainly.com/question/14375684

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
A shareholder who was buying additional shares in Wayport, Inc., told the shareholder seller "he was not aware of any bluebirds
aleksklad [387]

Answer: C. The seller has a 10(b) claim against the buyer.

Explanation:

10(b) is a section within the Securities and Exchange Commission and are a common source of liability for public companies.

It makes it unlawful to use or employ in relation to the trading of shares or securities.

Over here the buyer made the statement that he was aware that the CEO informed the board via email of a patent sale by Wayport that meant that the corporation would receive net proceeds.

The buyer has unlawful means of source and therefore is thinking of buying additional shares. Buyer is violating the 10(b) section of the securities and exchange commission act.

7 0
3 years ago
Loc Nguyen sold his personally owned boat for $6,000. Loc is not self-employed and he did not have any outstanding loans on the
lesantik [10]

Question Completion with options:

Select one:

a. Include the $5,000 in total income on Form 1040

b. Include the $5,000 as a capital gain on Schedule D

c. Include the $5,000 as self-employment income on Schedule C

d. Include the $5,000 as interest income on Form 1040

Answer:

Loc Nguyen should:

b. Include the $5,000 as a capital gain on Schedule D.

Explanation:

Both long-term and short-term capital gains and deductible capital losses are reported on Schedule D of Form 1040.  If the gain from the sale of the boat is a long-term capital gain, it will be subject to the lower capital gain tax rate of up to 20%, unlike the short-term capital gain that attracts a rate of up to 37%.

3 0
3 years ago
In 2009, the imaginary nation of Viloxia had a population of 5,000 and real GDP of 500,000. In 2010 it had a population of 5,100
Rashid [163]

The correct answer is A. During 2009 real GDP in Viloxia grew by 2 percent, which is about the same as average U.S. growth over the last one-hundred years.

Given that in 2009, the imaginary nation of Viloxia had a population of 5,000 and real GDP of 500,000, and in 2010 it had a population of 5,100 and real GDP of 520,200, to determine the growth of real GDP in Viloxia during 2009, the the following calculations must be made:

  • Total GDP / population = real GDP
  • 500,000 / 5000 = X
  • 100 = X
  • 520,200 / 5100 = X
  • 102 = X
  • 102 - 100 = 2

Therefore, during 2009 Viloxia's GDP grew by 2 percent, which is about the same as average U.S. growth over the last one-hundred years.

Learn more in brainly.com/question/4131508

6 0
3 years ago
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