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dolphi86 [110]
3 years ago
15

Explain how opportunity cost is different for economic goods and free goods

Business
1 answer:
Pepsi [2]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The difference is that free goods have exactly zero opportunity cost, because they cost nothing, their price is zero, and their use is non rival, and non excludable, meaning that if a person uses a free good, that person does not prevent any other person from using the good.

Economic goods, on the other hand, are goods that have a price, and that have a cost of production. Besides they are rival and/or exclusionary. The opportunity cost of an economic good varies depending on the good, but it is never zero.

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The nike swoosh is an example of ________ tools to create a position for the brand that distinguishes it from its competitors?
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

Symbolism

Explanation:

The nike swoosh is an example of position based on symbolism tools for the brand to distinguishes itself from its competitors?

Cheers

3 0
3 years ago
For most normal goods the income effect and the substitution effect work in the same direction; so when the price of a good fall
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

The income effect and substitution effect work in opposite directions and income effect is dominant.

Explanation:

In case of a normal good, both the income effect as well as substitution effect work in the same direction. A fall in the price of a product will increase the purchasing power of the consumer so its quantity demanded will increase.  

The consumers will also prefer the cheaper good so the substitution effect will cause the quantity demanded to increase.  

In case of an inferior good, however, income elasticity is negative. The income effect and substitution effect work in opposite directions.  

A price decrease in the case of an inferior good will increase the real income and purchasing power of the consumer. This will cause the quantity demanded of the inferior good to decline as the consumer will prefer a substitute normal good.

8 0
3 years ago
When Crossett Corporation was organized in January, Year 1, it immediately issued 4,000 shares of $50 par, 6 percent, cumulative
astraxan [27]

Answer:

a. $0

The company was organized in January, Year 1. They do not have to pay dividends because the company just started operations. The cumulative dividends are only to be paid at the end of the period so there is no dividend arrear here.

b. Preferred shareholders are meant to get:

= 4,000 shares * 50 * 6%

= $12,000 per year

As they are owed $12,000 from the first year and are now owed for the second, the dividends they will get is:

= 12,000 + 12,000

Preferred Dividends = $24,000

Ordinary shareholders get what is left:

= 25,000 - 24,000

= $1,000

8 0
3 years ago
Todd haitz is the marketing manager for the national basketball association. todd analyzes and tracks his marketing campaigns to
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

c. marketing campaign roi

Explanation:

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7 0
4 years ago
Cory is working on a global marketing assessment team looking out well into the future to help determine the most attractive mar
grin007 [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": countries with high purchasing power today may not continue to show the same growth in the future.

Explanation:

Even if during the past decade the world's major economies have been the same -<em>The U.S., Japan, China, Russia, and Germany</em>- it does not necessarily mean the scenario will not change for the next one hundred years. Some other countries like Saudi Arabia, Switzerland, Belize, Luxembourg, and Australia have started to show signs of increasing development that could turn the worldwide economy into a new direction. The last five (5) countries are reported as being the top nations with the highest purchasing power for 2018.

7 0
3 years ago
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