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notka56 [123]
3 years ago
6

If your Indiana trip is 375 km, how many cm is this ?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ivan3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is 3.75e+7

Step-by-step explanation:

Katarina [22]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is 375 km =  3.75e + 7 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>km to cm conversion</u>

Multiply the length value by 100000

It is given that,  Indiana trip is 375 km

<u>To convert 375 km to cm</u>

Here length in km

length = 375 km

<u>length * </u>100000 = 375 * 100000

= 37500000

= 3.75e + 7 cm

Therefore the correct answer is 375 km =  3.75e + 7 cm

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Answer:

x = 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Now any number to the power 0 is 1.

So x = 0.

5 0
4 years ago
1. Determine a rule that could be used to explain how the volume of a
Eva8 [605]

Answer:

See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution:-

- We will use the basic formulas for calculating the volumes of two solid bodies.

- The volume of a cylinder ( V_l ) is represented by:

                                  V_c = \pi *r^2*h

- Similarly, the volume of cone ( V_c ) is represented by:

                                  V_c = \frac{1}{3}*\pi *r^2 * h

Where,

               r : The radius of cylinder / radius of circular base of the cone

               h : The height of the cylinder / cone

- We will investigate the correlation between the volume of each of the two bodies wit the radius ( r ). We will assume that the height of cylinder/cone as a constant.

- We will represent a proportionality of Volume ( V ) with respect to ( r ):

                                  V = C*r^2

Where,

            C: The constant of proportionality

- Hence the proportional relation is expressed as:

                                 V∝ r^2

- The volume ( V ) is proportional to the square of the radius. Now we will see the effect of multiplying the radius ( r ) with a positive number ( a ) on the volume of either of the two bodies:

                                V = C*(a*r)^2\\\\V = C*a^2*r^2

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                              V = (\frac{1}{3} \pi *r^2*h)*a^2

                                          &

                              V = ( \pi *r^2*h)*a^2

8 0
3 years ago
Can anyone help me with 15a b c
Ilya [14]
The 3r would be the independent variable and m=30 is the dependent variable. Double check the answer though.
3 0
3 years ago
Please give me the correct answer.Only answer if you're very good at math.​
GaryK [48]

Answer:

-9 = 0.45m

Step-by-step explanation:

0.45m - 9 = 0.9m

  • ^ Subtract 0.45m from BOTH sides. so 0.9m - 0.45m... etc
  • Why? So that we can make the equation less complicated. Our goal is to isolate the variable m to be on one side of the "=" sign by itself
  • That will equal to:

-9 = 0.45m     <-- ANSWER

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Simplify.
Fiesta28 [93]
Simple. Just add/subtract each term. 4n-2n=2n. 8m+7m=15m.
This is very basic stuff.
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3 years ago
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