Answer:
take the payments over time payout
Explanation:
My personal opinion/advice would be to take the payments over time payout. There are many reasons for this, the first one being that most individuals are not used to receiving large sums of cash and usually end up wasting all the money as soon as they receive it, which usually does not occur if the payments are made over time. The second and more important reason is that if the payments are made over different years your would pay a much lesser amount on taxes every year that passes. This means that the even with the interest rate you would most likely have more overall money if you take the payments over time.
The opportunity cost of hosting these events is the next best alternative bundle of goods and services that could be provided.
<h3>What is meant by opportunity cost?</h3>
This is the term that is used to talk about the foregone alternative. It is what would have to be neglected because of another choice that has to be taken.
What this means is that the money that would have been spent on other aspects of the government was spent on the world cup so the benefits that the people would have gotten from the options are lost.
Hence we can say that The opportunity cost of hosting these events is the next best alternative bundle of goods and services that could be provided.
Read more on opportunity cost here
brainly.com/question/1549591
#SPJ1
Answer:
1 m/s2
Explanation:
The force on a body ( which is a pull or push) is given by the formula
F = Ma
where F is the force, a is the acceleration and M the mass of the body
Therefore, given that the same force is applied to both bodies,
0.058 × 10 = 0.58 × a
a = 0.058 × 10/0.58
a = 1 m/s2
The acceleration of the basketball will be 1 m/s2.
Answer:
Coupon (R) = 6.8% x 10,000 = $680
Face value (FV) = $10,000
Number of times coupon is paid in a year (m) = 2
No of years to maturity = 8 years
Yield to maturity (Kd) = 8% = 0.08
Po = R/2(1- (1 + r/m)-nm) + FV/ (1+r/m)n
m
r/m
Po = 680/2(1-(1+0.08/2)-8x2) + 10,000/(1 + 0.08/2
)8x2
0.08/2
Po = 340(1 - (1 + 0.04)-16) + 10,000/(1 + 0.04)16
0.04
Po = 340(1-0.5339) + 10,000/1.8730
0.04
Po = 3,961.85 + 5,339.03
Po = $9,300.88
Explanation:
The current market price of a bond is a function of the present value of semi-annual coupon and present value of the face value. The present value of semi-annual coupon is obtained by multiplying the coupon by the present value of annuity factor at 8% for 8 years. The present value of face value is obtained by discounting the face value at the discount factor for 8 years. The addition of the two gives the present value of the bond. All these explanations have been captured by the formula.
Answer:
Payout ratio =1- 12.96%*45%*9/1.4 = 0.6252 or 62.52%
Explanation:
WACC = Weight of Equity * Cost of Equity + Weight of Debt * (1-Tax rate) * Cost of Debt
16% = 45%* Cost of Equity + 55%*(1-40%)*9%
16%-55%*(1-40%)*9% = 45%*Cost of Equity
Cost of Equity = 28.9556%
Current price of Stock = D1/(Cost of Equity - Growth)
25 = 4/(28.9556%-Growth)
Growth = 28.9556%-4/25 = 12.96%
ROE = Net income/Equity = 1.4/(45%*9)
Growth rate = (1- Payout ratio)*ROE
12.96% = (1-Payout ratio)* 1.4/(45%*9)
Payout ratio =1- 12.96%*45%*9/1.4 = 0.6252 or 62.52%