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kirill [66]
3 years ago
9

Starting with 10 blue balls, in each of 10 sequential rounds, we remove a random ball and replace it with a new red ball. For ex

ample, after the first round we have 9 blue balls and one red ball, after the second round, with probability 9/10 we have 8 blue balls and 2 red balls, and with probability 1/10 we have 9 blue balls and one red ball, etc. What is the probability that the ball we remove at the 11th round is blue?
Mathematics
1 answer:
s344n2d4d5 [400]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Suppose the fraction of blue balls at any given state n is f_{n}. At the start of the process we have: f_{0}=1.

Now consider the situation after having drawn n times.

The current fraction of blue balls is f_{n}, the number of blue balls is therefore 10f_{n}.

We either draw a red ball, with probability 1−f_{n}.  and the number of red balls, blue balls stay the same (we swap red for red):

f_{n+1}(red)=f_{n}

or we draw a blue ball, with probability f_{n}  and we obtain 10f_{n}−1 blue balls on a total of 10 balls, thus:

f_{n+1}(blue) = (10f_{n}− 1)/10

The total probability of (fraction of) blue balls after this n'th draw is therefore:

f_{n+1}=f_{n+1}(red)(1−f_{n})+f_{n+1}(blue)f_{n}

which can be simplified to:

f_{n+1}=0.9f_{n}

which leads to:

fn=0.9f_{n}

At the end of the 10'th draw the fraction of blue balls is equal to:

f_{10} = 0.9^{10} ≈ 0.348678

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