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agasfer [191]
3 years ago
15

Suppose that the US Federal Reserve Board was able to confirm that the US economy is in the brink of a recession, operating at a

GDP level (Y1) that is well below its full-employment capacity (YF). Your tasks are: a. Name one monetary policy, and specify the policy tool to use, that the Fed could make to help boost the economy. b. Using the AD-AS theory, show and EXPLAIN the expected short run and long run effect of this policy on the US economy.
Business
1 answer:
neonofarm [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a.) To combat recession the federal reserve board can adopt <u>expansionary monetary policy.</u> The fed can<u> reduce the cash reserve ratio</u>.

b.) The aggregate output and price is going to increase in short run. In the long run though economy will be operating at equilibrium level.

Explanation:

With the decline in the cash reserve ratio the total reserves with the banks will increase. This will boost credit credit creation. As the money supply in the economy increases the aggregate demand will increase. This will further lead to increase in price and output level.

In the medium term, the aggregate supply will also increase though not as much as demand, so there will be excess of demand. The price level will rise further.

In the long run though output will always be at the equilibrium level.

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Answer:

A. Depreciation expense in 20Y5 = $900

Depreciation expense in 20Y6 = $3,600

B. Depreciation expense in 20Y5 = $2800

Depreciation expense in 20Y6 =$7840

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($42,000 - $6,000) / 10 = $3,600

The depreciation expense would be $3600 each year except in 20Y5. when the equipment was used from October to December which is 3 months

Depreciation expense in 20Y5 = 3/12 x $3600 = $900

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)  = 2/10 = 0.2

Depreciation expense in 20Y5 = 0.2 x $42,000 = $8,400

But the equipment was only used for 3 months, so we would divide the figure above by 3

$8400 / 3 = $2800

Depreciation expense in 20Y5 = $2800

Depreciation expense in 20Y6 = book value in the beginning of 20Y6 x depreciation expense

Book value = cost of the asset - depreciation expense in 20Y5

$42,000 - $2800 = $39,200

Depreciation expense in 20Y6 = $39,200 x 0.2 = $7840

4 0
3 years ago
If steven's account balance is less than -$20.00, but greater than -$21.00 what could stevens account balance be? answer below :
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Answer:

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Explanation:

because its in between both numbers

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What is pure risk?<br> HELLPPP PLEASE
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Answer:

Pure risk

Explanation:

To the best of knowledge, will it is a situation one finds him/herself in and doesn't know how to solve the issue but has only one possible outcome if it truly happens; which could be danger.

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Cumulative Preferred Dividend last year = $200,000 (100,000 x $2)

Preferred Dividend this year = $200,000 (100,000 x $2)

Total preferred dividend to be paid this year = $400,000

Thus, the Preferred Stockholders will be paid $400,000 ($200,000 for last year and $200,000 for this year).

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