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3 years ago

10

The weather man predicts a 35% chance of rain today. He predicts a 60% chance of rain tomorrow. What is the probability that it

will rain today and tomorrow?

1 answer:

sineoko [7]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

21%.

Step-by-step explanation:

This would be 0.35*0.60 = 0.21 or 21%.

The probabilities are multiplied because the 2 events are independent.

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Which point satisfies the inquality 2×+y > 10 a. (2,3) b.(3,4) c. (3,2) d. (4,3)

Anna11 [10]

D. (4,3) that's the answer

8 0

3 years ago

Could the inverse of a non-function be a function? Explain or give an example.

Kitty [74]

Answer:

The inverse of a non-function mapping is not necessarily a function.

For example, the inverse of the non-function mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is the same as itself (and thus isn't a function, either.)

Step-by-step explanation:

A mapping is a set of pairs of the form $(a,\, b)$ . The first entry of each pair is the value of the input. The second entry of the pair would be the value of the output.

A mapping is a function if and only if for each possible input value $x$ , at most one of the distinct pairs includes $x\!$ as the value of first entry.

For example, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0) \rbrace$ is a function. However, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace$ isn't a function since more than one of the distinct pairs in this mapping include $1$ as the value of the first entry.

The inverse of a mapping is obtained by interchanging the two entries of each of the pairs. For example, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (a_{1},\, b_{1}),\, (a_{2},\, b_{2})\rbrace$ is the mapping $\lbrace (b_{1},\, a_{1}),\, (b_{2},\, a_{2})\rbrace$ .

Consider mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ . This mapping isn't a function since the input value $0$ is the first entry of more than one of the pairs.

Invert $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ as follows:

$(0,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 0)$ .
$(0,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 0)$ .
$(1,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 1)$ .
$(1,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 1)$ .

In other words, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ would be $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ , which is the same as the original mapping. (Mappings are sets. There is no order between entries within a mapping.)

Thus, $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is an example of a non-function mapping that is still not a function.

More generally, the inverse of non-trivial ellipses (a class of continuous non-function $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ mappings, including circles) are also non-function mappings.

3 0

2 years ago

QUESTION 3 of 10: Stock returns vary from year to year. The more variance a stock displays the greater the potential risk. These

Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

The variance of these investment returns is 74

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Series = 10, 30, 15, 5, 20

To Find:

variance of a series = ?

Solution:

The variance of the series = $Var\left(X\right)=\sum _{i=1}^n\frac{\left(x_i-\bar{x}\right)^2}{n}$

$\bar{x} = \frac{10+30 +5+15 + 20}{5}$

$\bar{x} = \frac{80}{5}$

$\bar{x} =16$

Now $(x_i -\bar{x})^2 =$ $(10 -16)^2 + (30 -16)^2 + (5 -16)^2 +(15 -16)^2 +(20 -16)^2$

= $(-6)^2 + (14)^2 + (-11)^2 + (-1)^2+ (-4)^2$

= 36 + 196 +121 + 1+ 16

= 370

Now

$Var\left(X\right)=\frac{370}{5}$ = 74

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

So far this season, Shawn has averaged 6 out of 11 free throws per game. Based on his previous performance, how many free throws

Mnenie [13.5K]

Shawn can expect to make 12 free throw in his next game

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3 years ago

Write the equation in slope-intercept form of the line that passes through

Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

m = (6-4)/(-1-5) or - 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

m = (6-4)/(-1-5)

or

- 1/3

5 0

3 years ago