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Lera25 [3.4K]
3 years ago
15

Ashland Corporation estimates its manufacturing overhead costs to be $360,000 and its direct labor costs to be $400,000 for 2020

. The actual manufacturing labor costs were $120,000 for job 1, $180,000 for job 2 and $200,000 for job 3 during 2020. Manufacturing overhead is applied to jobs on the basis of direct labor costs using a predetermined overhead rate. The actual manufacturing overhead cost for the year was $212,000. The amount of overhead assigned to Job 3 during 2020 was:
Business
1 answer:
denis23 [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Allocated MOH= $180,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Manufacturing overhead is applied to jobs based on direct labor costs using a predetermined overhead rate.

The estimated manufacturing overhead costs are $360,000 and direct labor costs $400,000.

First, we need to calculate the MOH rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 360000/400000= $0.9 per direct labor dollar.

The actual manufacturing labor costs for job 3 are $200,000.

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 0.9*200000= $180,000

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Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

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  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

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Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

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At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

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