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elena55 [62]
3 years ago
11

Explain why high-performance value-added salespeople earn much more than high- performance transactional salespeople g

Business
1 answer:
nydimaria [60]3 years ago
4 0

Answer with Explanation:

The Value-added salespersons are the one with better qualification, trainings, experience and have thorough understanding how the sales mechanism would better work in different circumstances and thus are far much better than the transaction salespeople. Furthermore, they are the one who knows what the customer is desiring and this helps them in adding value to their operations and product. Whereas transactional salesperson add very little value to sell the product because the customer knows about the product features and the presence of the transactional salesperson doesn't have any significant impact on the customer perception.

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Lein's net income is $200,000 and its operating cash flows are $240,000. The company reports total assets of $1.6 million and $1
yarga [219]

Answer:

14.1%

Explanation:

Cash return on assets is the ratio of a company's operating cash flow to its average total assets. It shows how a company is generating cash flow from its assets and compares a company’s profitability with other companies.

Cash return on assets = operating cash flow / average total assets

Given that:

operating cash flows = $240,000

Average total assets = ($1.6 million + $1.8 million) / 2 = $1.7 million.

Therefore, Cash return on assets = $240000 / $1.7 million = 0.141 = 14.1%

6 0
3 years ago
An investor will choose between Asset Q with an expected return of 6.5% and a standard deviation of 5.5%, Asset U with an expect
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

Asset U

Explanation:

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset Q = Expected return / standard deviation

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset Q = 6.5% / 5.5%

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset Q = 1.1818

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset U = Expected return / standard deviation

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset U = 8.8% / 5.5%

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset U = 1.6

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset B = Expected return / standard deviation

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset B = 8.8% / 6.5%

Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset B = 1.3538

The  investor should prefer Asset U because its has the highest reward to volatility ratio among the three options.

8 0
3 years ago
The following cash transactions occurred during the period. INTEREST RECEIVED IN CASH $18,000
nikklg [1K]

Answer:

OPERATING ACTIVITIES

SOURCES: INTEREST RECEIVED IN CASH $18,000, the company receives money

(USES:) PAYMENT OF WAGES TO EMPLOYEES $35,000, the company pays wages

INVESTING ACTIVITIES

SOURCES: NONE

(USES:) PURCHASE OF A PIECE OF EQUIPMENT FOR CASH $120,000  , the company pays for the equipment

FINANCING ACTIVITIES

SOURCES: NONE

(USES:) DISTRIBUTION OF CASH DIVIDEND DECLARED LAST YEAR $25,000, the company pays dividends

5 0
2 years ago
Describe the similarities and differences between TQM and Six Sigma quality-management techniques.
hoa [83]

Answer:

Explained below:

Explanation:

The basic similarity between TQM and Six Sigma quality-management techniques is that each one is a quality control approach and the basic difference between Six Sigma and TQM is the method that each one addresses quality check.TQM determines quality up to that level to which a product attends standards designed inside the company while Six Sigma trades the representation of quality to a relational one, maintaining that quality is based on the fewer number of lacks, which is necessary to be eliminated as much as attainable.

6 0
3 years ago
Southern Tours is considering acquiring Holiday Vacations. Management believes Holiday Vacations can generate cash flows of $218
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

The correct answer is option (A) $519,799.59.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Payment 1st year = $218,000

Payment 2nd year = $224,000

Payment 3rd year = $238,000

Rate of interest = 14.5%

So, We can calculate the amount Southern Tours willing to pay by using following formula:

We add the payment for 3 years by simple interest as:

=  \frac{payment (1st year)}{1+r^{t1}  } +\frac{payment (2nd year)}{1+r^{t2}  }  + \frac{payment (3rd year)}{1+r^{t3}  }

=  \frac{218,000}{1+0.145  } + \frac{224,000}{(1+0.145)^{2}  } + \frac{238,000}{(1+0.145)^{3}  }

= $519,799.59

Hence, the amount Southern Tours willing to pay is $519,799.59.

4 0
3 years ago
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