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timofeeve [1]
3 years ago
8

Verify that f has an inverse. then use the function f and the given real number a to find (f −1)'(a). (hint: see example 1. if a

n answer does not exist, enter dne.) function real number f(x) = x + 2 x − 6 , x > 6 a = 3
Mathematics
1 answer:
jek_recluse [69]3 years ago
3 0
We have that

f(x) = x + 2 x − 6------------ > <span>f(x) = 3x− 6
</span>The function is continuous in the interval (-∞,∞)
<span>
y=3x-6--------- >3x=y+6------> x=(y+6)/3

</span>Interchange x and y<span> to find the inverse function
</span><span>(f −1)(x)=(x+6)/3----> (x/3)+2
</span>Apply derivative <span>with respect to x</span>
(f −1)'(x)=1/3 
for all values of x  (f −1)'(x)=1/3 

therefore
for a=3  (f −1)'(a)=1/3

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It takes 150 seconds for Qian to complete the track.

Let she runs the track in the clockwise direction.

In 60 seconds, she runs \frac{60}{150} = \frac{2}{5}th of the track.

Since she meets Marissa, who is running in the opposite (counter clockwise) direction in every 60 seconds, Marissa should have completed \frac{3}{5}th of the track.

Chantel meets Marissa in every 300 seconds.

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Hence, in 300 seconds, Qian, Marissa and Chantel all meets at the starting point.

ALITER;

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6 0
3 years ago
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That’s the answer I got for your question

3 0
3 years ago
Three times a number is the same as 28 more than 6 times the number. Find the number. If n is "the number," which equation could
aksik [14]

<em><u>Answer:</u></em>

3n = 6n + 28

<em><u>Explanation:</u></em>

The number we are dealing with is "n"

<u>We will proceed by converting the English into Math:</u>

1- Three times the number = 3 * n = 3n

2- Six times the number = 6 * n = 6n

3- 28 more than 6 times the number means that we will add 28 to the value 6n. This will give 6n + 28

<u>Finally, we are given that:</u>

3n is the same as (6n + 28). This means that they are both equal.

<u>Therefore, our equation would be:</u>

3n = 6n + 28

Hope this helps :)

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The smallest object visible with your eyes is similar to the width of a piece of hair, which is 1×10−4 meters wide. Using an opt
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Answer:

B. 5\times10^{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told that the smallest object visible with our eyes is similar to the width of a piece of hair, which is 1\times 10^{-4} meters wide.

Using an optical microscope, we can see items up to 2\times 10^{-7} meters wide.

To find the objects we can see with our eyes are how much larger than the objects we can see with an optical microscope, we can set an equation as:

\frac{\text{The width of the object we can see with our eyes}}{\text{The width of the objects we can see with microscope}}=\frac{1*10^{-4}}{2*10^{-7}}

Using the exponent rule of quotient \frac{a^m}{a^n}=a^{m-n} we will get,

\frac{\text{The width of the object we can see with our eyes}}{\text{The width of the objects we can see with microscope}}=\frac{1}{2}*10^{-4-(-7)}

\frac{\text{The width of the object we can see with our eyes}}{\text{The width of the objects we can see with microscope}}=0.5*10^{-4+7}

\frac{\text{The width of the object we can see with our eyes}}{\text{The width of the objects we can see with microscope}}=0.5*10^{3}

\frac{\text{The width of the object we can see with our eyes}}{\text{The width of the objects we can see with microscope}}=0.5*10\times 10^{3-1}

\text{The object we can see with our eyes}=5\times10^{2}*\text{The objects we can see with microscope}

Therefore, the objects we can see with our eyes are 5\times10^{2} times larger than the objects we can see with an optical microscope and option B is the correct choice.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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