What's one hundred sixty times thirtyone
1 answer:
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Answer:
Suppose the fraction of blue balls at any given state n is . At the start of the process we have:
=1.
Now consider the situation after having drawn n times.
The current fraction of blue balls is , the number of blue balls is therefore 10
.
We either draw a red ball, with probability 1−. and the number of red balls, blue balls stay the same (we swap red for red):
(red)=
or we draw a blue ball, with probability and we obtain 10
−1 blue balls on a total of 10 balls, thus:
(blue) = (10
− 1)/10
The total probability of (fraction of) blue balls after this n'th draw is therefore:
=
(red)(1−
)+
(blue)
which can be simplified to:
=0.9
which leads to:
fn=0.9
At the end of the 10'th draw the fraction of blue balls is equal to:
=
≈ 0.348678
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Number of repeat customers = 40
Amount charged from each of the repeat customers = $ x
So,
amount charged from 40 customers = $ 40 x
Number of new customers = 18
As Michel charged each of the new subscribers $3 less than the amount charged from each of the repeat customers,
amount charged from each of the new customers = $ (x - 3)
So,
amount charged from 18 new customers = $ 18(x - 3)
Total amount charged from repeat and new customers =
As Michel collected $468 for delivering newspapers,