It would be false, because they don’t go into the same category
Answer:
a. ASC 450 (previously recognized as SFAS 5) includes the declaration of a risk in proceedings and there is at minimum a "fair probability" that a loss has been sustained, and the report must provide an estimation of the probable damage or extent of damage or a declaration that this very calculation is not practicable.
b. Three specific criteria dictate however much depreciation they can subtract: (1) the real estate value, (2) the property rehabilitation time and (3) the form of depreciation utilized. You can't actually subtract as an benefit the lease or interest contributions, or the cost of furniture, decorations and appliances. The depreciation will only be deducted on the specific property used during leasing purposes.
c. For overclockers as well as operation in the federation the Computer is still the obvious winner. If you want to change hardware to maintain the cutting edge of your program, then a Laptop is the way forward. Further software must be installed for the PC like a large and ever-growing free software computer collection. Even so, thanks to an embedded tool named "Boot camp," you can install a Windows ® operating system on a Mac along with PC applications
Answer:
fall
Explanation:
The situation above can be best explained by using the "Liquidity Preference Theory." According to the theory when money supply increases (as in the situation above), the interest rate falls. So, this means that many people will be more willing to invest, thereby resulting to a higher income. On the contrary, if the money supply decreases, the interest rate rises. This may temporarily increase the employment condition, however, it can lead to inflation in the long-run.
So, this explains the answer.
Answer:
$0
Explanation:
Profits will be $0 if sales turn out to be $3.2 million.
Profit will decrease by ($0.20) million.
Degree of operating leverage = change in operating income ÷ change in sales
![5=\frac{[\frac{EBIT1-0.20}{0.20}]}{\frac{3.2-4}{4} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=5%3D%5Cfrac%7B%5B%5Cfrac%7BEBIT1-0.20%7D%7B0.20%7D%5D%7D%7B%5Cfrac%7B3.2-4%7D%7B4%7D%20%7D)
(EBIT1 - 0.20) ÷ 0.20 = -1
(EBIT1 - 0.20) = -0.2
EBIT 1 = 0
Therefore,
Profits = $0
Answer:
The correct answer is A. economists include opportunity cost in zero economic profit, while accountants do not include opportunity cost in zero accounting profit.
Explanation:
Because the economists include opportunity cost in their profit calculation, economic profits always tend to be lower than the accounting profits and economic losses does not necessarily mean that accounting there are accounting losses.
