Well scratch off A since $70 bills do not exist. answer C is also wrong and so is answer b and through all my calculatons answer D is the best choice in my opinion
EFGH is twice the size of ABCD
Answer:
The answer is D(t) = 160 - 25t
Step-by-step explanation:
well khan academy said it lol
Answer:
259/30 or 8 19/30 depending on what format your teacher wants the answer
Step-by-step explanation:
First we can turn both mixed fractions into improper fractions and to do that we multiply the whole number by the denominator and that add that to the top number. So for 3 4/5 we would multiply 3 and 5 and than add 4 getting us to 19/5 doing the same to 4 5/6 gets us to 29/6. Now in order to add fractions we need to get a common denominator. The least common multiple of 5 and 6 is 30 so we will multiply each fraction by whatever number will give us 30 in the denomiator. for 19/5 that number is 6 so our new fraction is 114/30 and for 29/6 that number is 5 so our new number is 145/30. Now we just add the numerators and simplify. 114/30+145/30=259/30
I hope this helps and please don't hesitate to ask if there is anything still unclear!
Since the sample is greater than 10, we can approximate this binomial problem with a normal distribution.
First, calculate the z-score:
z = (x - μ) / σ = (37000 - 36000) / 7000 = 0.143
The probability P(x > 37000$) = 1 - P(<span>x < 37000$),
therefore we need to look up at a normal distribution table in order to find
P(z < 0.143) = 0.55567
And
</span>P(x > 37000$) = 1 - <span>0.55567 = 0.44433
Hence, there is a 44.4% probability that </span><span>the sample mean is greater than $37,000.</span>
