The overdraft fee is the fee that John was charged on his checking account.
<h3>What is an overdraft fee?</h3>
This is a fee that has to be paid due to the fact that a payment has been authorized.
The overdraft fee is usually paid to cover transactions if there are not enough funds in the account.
<h3>The checking account</h3>
This is a current account that lets deposit and easily withdraw for the sake of transactions.
Read more on the overdraft fee here: brainly.com/question/25532516
Answer:
WACC (CAPM) 5.2%
WACC (ICAPM) 5.03%
Explanation:
The weighted average cost of capital is
Ke * E/ E+D + Kd * (1 -t) D / E+D
Ke = Rf + (Rm - Rf) * 
Ke (CAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 1.12
Ke (CAPM) = 7.532%
Kd (CAPM) = Kd (1-t)
Kd (CAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)
Kd (CAPM) = 4.636%
WACC (ICAPM) : 7.532 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%
WACC (CAPM) = 5.2164%
Ke (ICAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 0.86
Ke (ICAPM) = 6.596%
Kd (ICAPM) = Kd (1-t)
Kd (ICAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)
Kd (ICAPM) = 4.636%
WACC (ICAPM) : 6.596 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%
WACC (CAPM) = 5.03%
The correct answer to the question is (B) referent power.
Referent power refers to <u>a type of power that a person attains through his or her interpersonal relationship skills</u>.
Though personalized power seems like an answer it is actually not, it is a type of motive that a person has for power. Legitimate, reward, and coercive all stem from external sources, and thus they do not fit the description in the question.
Answer: The answer is Trend extrapolation
Explanation:
Answer:
11.68 years
Explanation:
For computing the number of years first we have to applied the NPER formula i.e to be shown in the attachment below:
Given that,
Present value = $11,000
Future value = $19,000
Rate of interest = 6.5%
PMT = $0
The formula is shown below:
= NPER(Rate;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying the above formula, the number of years is 8.68
Now after 3 years, it would be
= 8.68 + 3
= 11.68 years