Answer:
<u>$26000</u>
Explanation:
from the question;
check per day; 20000
delay: 3 days
checks to pay suppliers; 17000
clearing time 2 days
<u>we first calculate collection flaot:</u>
collection flaot = average amount of check x outstanding days
= 20000 x 3
= 60000
now we have to calculate <u>disbursements float:</u>
average amount of check x days to clear
= 17000 x 2
= 34000
with these two values we can get the net float
= collection flaot - disbursements float
= 60000 - 34000
= <u>$26000</u>
<h2>
10 workers would cause the marginal to exceed the marginal benefits.</h2>
Explanation:
- Let us understand the term "Marginal benefits".
- It is the additional amount that the consumer "willing to pay" for an additional goods or a service.
- In terms of producers, the marginal benefit is termed as marginal revenue.
- Here according to the situation given in the question as to how many workers to hire could be answered by the number 10.
- Marginal revenue always falls below marginal cost.
- It is the revenue that the organization receives for selling one additional unit.
Answer:
16
9.8
12.90
5.8
Explanation:
The price to earning ratio is a financial metric used to value a company. it compares the price of a stock to the earnings of the stock. the lower the metric is, the higher the valuation of the firm
price to earning ratio = market value per share / earnings
1 = 176/11 = 16
2. 78.40 / 8 = 9.8
3. 77.40 / 6 = 12.90
4. 203/35 = 5.8
Answer:
$0.215
Explanation:
The computation of the cost per item in Group 1 is shown below:-
Candy amount paid = $3,100
Item received = 7,100
For Group 1
Sale value = Group 1 units × Selling price
= 2,110 × $0.15
= $316.5
For Group 2
Sale value = Group 2 units × Selling price
= 4,720 × $0.35
= $1,652
For Group 3
Sale value = Group 3 units × Selling price
= 270 × $0.71
= $191.7
= Total sale value = $316.5 + $1,652 + $191.7
= $2,160.2
So, Sale percentage for Group 1 = $316.5 ÷ $2,160.2
= 14.65%
Now, the proportion of cost for Group 1
= $3,100 × 14.65%
= 454.15
Cost per unit = Proportion cost ÷ Group 1 units
= $454.15 ÷ 2,110
= $0.215
Answer:
Cash outflow will be $1300
So option (C) will be correct answer
Explanation:
We have given overhead expense = $2000 per month
Depreciation expenses = $500
And allocated insurance expense = $200
So non cash expense = depreciation expense + allocated insurance expense = $500+$200 = $700
We have to fond the cash out flow
Cash outflow is equal to = Overhead expense - non cash expense = $2000 - $700 = $1300
So cash outflow will be $1300
So option (C) will be correct answer
