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Vsevolod [243]
3 years ago
6

In TJX's case, the security breach made its customers vulnerable to this.a) Loss of personal propertyb) Inaccurate personal data

c) Identity theftd) Loss of access to personal datae) Credit card fees
Business
1 answer:
ludmilkaskok [199]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

(C) Identify theft

Explanation:

The security breach means that a person has unauthorized access to the company or person data which is very important to them

In the question, it is mentioned that the security breach harms the customer, whether physical or emotional.  

So, if we go to the options

1. Loss of personal property: The security breach is talk about the data, so this personal property option is incorrect.  

2. Inaccurate personal data is also not considered because only relevant information should be misused.  

3.  Loss of access to personal data is also not a reason because we want the person who is doing this malicious thing

4. Credit card fees are irrelevant.

So, the company should identify the theft who is responsible for the security breach.

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Which type of portfolio might a young investor who is not afraid of risk choose? a portfolio of with a high percentage of stocks
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The suitable portfolio for the young investor is a.) portfolio of with a high percentage of stocks. Stocks are a person's share in a company, giving them profits or losses based on a company's performance. Stocks are highly risky due to the unpredictable performance in the stock market, prices can rise or drop fast. However, the returns of the stocks are higher compared to other financial instruments.
5 0
3 years ago
The shadow price measures, per unit increase in the right hand side of the constraint, Select one: a. the change in the value of
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

A. the change in the value of the optimal solution.

Explanation:

  • A shadow pricing is associated with each constraint of the model and is the instantaneous changes that occur in the objective model of the optimal solution that is obtained by changing the right-hand side constrained by one unit and a reduced cost is associated with each variable of the model. Also referred to  as a monetary values that is assigned to the current unknowable or difficult to calculate costs.
7 0
3 years ago
The company employs a single employee who works all five weekdays and is paid on the following Monday. The employee works the en
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer: The answer is provided below

Explanation:

Adjusting entries are the entries that are passed at the end of the year. They are passed to adjust the account so as to make them follow the matching principle.

In the calculation attached, it should be noted that the salary expenses was calculated as the amount earned per day by the number of days. This is:

= $800 × 5

= $4000.

The necessary journal has been attached

8 0
3 years ago
The U.S. Post Office charges 40 cents for the first ounce and 25 cents per ounce for each additional ounce. Use an inequality to
Leni [432]

Answer:

15 ounces.

Explanation:

The first ounce is worth 0.40, and the additional x ounces are worth 0.25 each. So, the inequality should be Y > A + B * X, where Y is equal to 4, A is the value of the first ounce (0.4), B is the value of the additional ounces (0.25) and x is the quantity of additional ounces.

  • 4 > 0.4 + x * 0.25
  • 4 - 0.4 > 0.25x
  • 3.6/0.25 > x
  • 14,4 > x

14 is the maximum of additional ounces that can be mailed, we have to add the first one, for a total of 15 whole ounces that can be mailed for no more than $4.

8 0
3 years ago
Harte Systems, Inc., a maker of electronic surveillance equipment, is considering selling to a well-known hardware chain the rig
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The proposed deal calls for the hardware chain to pay Harte $30,000 and $25,000 at the end of years 1 and 2 and to make an annual year-end payments of $15,000 in years 3 through 9. The final payment to Harte of $10,000 would be due at the end of year 10.

1)

Cash flows:

Year 1= 30,000

Year 2= 25,000

Year 3= 15,000

Year 4= 15,000

Year 5= 15,000

Year 6= 15,000

Year 7= 15,000

Year 8= 15,000

Year 9= 15,000

Year 10= 10,000

2) To calculate the present value we need to use the following formula for each cash flow:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

Year 1= 30,000/1.12= 26,785.71

Year 2= 25,000/1.12= 22,321.43

Year 3= 15,000/1.12= 13,392.86

....

Year 10= 10,000/1.12^10= 3,219.73

PV= $104,508.27

3) The present value of cash inflows is higher than $100,000. It is more convenient to decline the $100,000.

4 0
3 years ago
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