The most efficient and effective in managing its inventory is Company B.
<h3>Who is the most efficient?</h3>
The days' sales in inventory is a financial ratio that measures the rate at which a firm is able to sell its inventory in a given year. The lower the ratio, the more efficient a firm is in selling its inventory.
Days' sales in inventory = number of days in a period / inventory turnover
Inventory turnover = cost of goods sold / average inventory
To learn more about financial ratios, please check: brainly.com/question/26092288
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Answer:
The multiple choices missing from the question are:
a. $60,000.
b. $50,000.
c. $57,000.
d. $59,000.
Option D,$59000 is correct
Explanation:
The recorded cost of the equipment is made of purchase cost,the sales tax since it is not recoverable,shipping cost as well as the installation cost.
The recorded cost is computed thus:
Purchase price $50,000
sales tax $4,000
shipping $3,000
installation $2,000
total cost $59,000
The rationale for including shipping and installation costs is that asset cost should include cost of bringing the asset to current location(shipping) and condition(installation)
Answer:
Beta of a security is the covariance of the security return with the return on the market portfolio divided by variance of the market return.
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Beta of a security is calculated as covariance (Ri,Rm) divided by Variance of the market return. Beta is used for measuring the systematic risk of a security.
Answer:
c. customer relationship management
Explanation:
Customer relationship management -
It is the method , to manage the interactions of the present or previous customers with the company , by using the data , is known as the customer relationship manangement .
It make use of all the previous data in order to increase the business realtionship with the cutomers , for better profit .
The CRM , takes help from the website of the compnay , emails , chats and even social media , to perform its task .
Answer:
C) $1000
Explanation:
First lets calculate the cumulative preferred stock dividend for 2 years
(1000 * 10 ) * 5% = 500 / year
so for 2 years = $1000 since it is cumulative and not paid in one year is added to next year.
Total dividend payable = $2000
so for common stock whatever is left over is paid thus,
Common stock share = Total - Preferred cumulative = 2000 - 1000 = $1000
Hope that helps.