Question

A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 42 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery because of intermittent contractions. She denies ruptured membranes. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 140/96; pulse 72; afebrile; fundal height 32 cm; and estimated fetal weight of 2900 gm. Cervix is closed, 25% effaced, -2 station. The fetal heart rate tracing shows occasional late decelerations. Of the following, what is the next best step in management?A. Maternal left lateral positionB. Intrauterine resuscitation with terbutalineC. Start an amnioinfusionD. Begin magnesium sulfateE. Augment labor with oxytocin

Answer 1

I would go with B. Baby needs to get out of there safely, so maybe a mix of B and E.