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Arte-miy333 [17]
4 years ago
6

A. A fair 6-face die will be rolled some number of times, and you win if it shows an ace (one spot) 20% or more of the time. Oth

erwise, you lose. Which is better for you to win: 60 rolls or 600 rolls? Explain
b. As in (a), but you win if the percentage of aces is 15% or more.
c. As in (a), but you win if the percentage of aces is between 15% and 20% inclusive.
d. As in (a), but you win if the number of aces is within 2 of 1/6 of the number of rolls. In other words, for 60 rolls, you win if you get 8 to 12 aces in 60 rolls. For 600 rolls, you win if you get 98 to 102 aces in 600 rolls.

Mathematics
1 answer:
butalik [34]4 years ago
4 0

Answer: The complete question is found in the attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

Law of large numbers: The probability of occurrence of an event becomes closer to the theoretical probability as the number of trials increases

P(an ace) = 1/6

= 0.1667

= 16.67%

a) In 600 rolls, the value will be close to 16.67. compared to 60 rolls

Greater than 20% interval doesn't include 16.67%. So, for more than 20% ace, 60 rolls is better.

b) More than 15% interval includes 16.67. So, it is better to roll 600 times

c) The interval between 15% and 20% include 16.67% and hence, 600 rolls is better

d) Larger number of trials is better to get exactly 16

So, 600 rolls is better

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fgiga [73]

Answer:

For this case we know that \frac{2\pi}{3}= 120 degrees. For this case we want to find:

arctan(tan(\frac{2\pi}{3}))

Since the tan and arctan functions are inverse when we apply bth at the same time we got the identity function so then we got for this case:

arctan(tan(\frac{2\pi}{3})) = I(\frac{2\pi}{3}) = \frac{2\pi}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we know that \frac{2\pi}{3}= 120 degrees. For this case we want to find:

arctan(tan(\frac{2\pi}{3}))

Since the tan and arctan functions are inverse when we apply bth at the same time we got the identity function so then we got for this case:

arctan(tan(\frac{2\pi}{3})) = I(\frac{2\pi}{3}) = \frac{2\pi}{3}

7 0
3 years ago
What is 2/5 of 340000
Charra [1.4K]
136000
first you do 340000 divided by 5.
then you times that by 2 hope that helped
7 0
3 years ago
Can someone help !. ?
Olin [163]
3.8 i think because just look at the number and look if you get the mean and then get negative1.2 and then use the medium and then tadda.
4 0
4 years ago
Can someone please explain how to do number 9.
bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

x<15, probably

Step-by-step explanation:

maybe multiply 2 to each side to eliminate the fraction. so 3x+15<60. subtract 15 to isolate the variable term so 3x<45. divide by 3 to isolate x so x<15. check the work. is the inequality true for all values of x less than 15? let's try the first possible integer value, 14, to be sure. 3(14)+15= 57. so 57/2<30. now 57/2 is 28.5 and 28.5<30 so it seems right

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3 years ago
I need help with this math problem on my quiz can someone help me ?
umka21 [38]

Answer:

A. 6 sq. units

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a triangle can be found with base times height divided by 2

The base is 6 and the height is 2

6x2= 12, 12/2 is 6

A. 6 sq. units

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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