We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
Answer:
9
Step-by-step explanation:
if hes 6 now and shes or he is 2 tokes older nabin would be 6 with Kiran was 3 so now it's 9 cause they are 3 years apart
Since 36 is closer to 40 than it is to 20. <u>36/40 is closer to 1 than it is to 1/2.</u>
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<h3>Fractions and Ratio</h3>
Find the diagram attached
- The fraction 36/90 is approximated as 9/10 = 0.9
From the given result, you can see that 0.9 is closer to 1 than 0.5 since the difference between 1 and 0.9 is low that the difference between 1 and 0.5 is 0.5.
Hence the correct option is D. Since 36 is closer to 40 than it is to 20. <u>36/40 is closer to 1 than it is to 1/2.</u>
Learn more on fractions and ratio here: brainly.com/question/12106245
Answer:
1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
Find two easy-to work with points
-3,2 and -1,3
slope, m = (y1-y2 ) / ( x1-x2)
(2-3) / ( -3 - -1) = -1/(-2) = 1/2
( it does not matter which point you select as x1 ,y1 or x2, y2 )